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Exam Code: C-TB1200-88
Exam Name: SAP (SAP Certified Application Associate - SAP Business One 8.8)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 80 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-30

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NO.1 The customer successfully went live last week. What is the best method for the
implementation
consultant to maintain the continuous reliability of the customer system?
A. Install the Service Manager
B. Create a Service Level Agreement
C. Activate the services of the remote support platform for SAP Business One
D. Upgrade the customer system to the latest patch level
Answer: C

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NO.2 Top Toys defined their sub-periods as months. How often should they run the period-end
closing
utility?
A. They are required to run the period-end closing utility both at the end of each month and at
theend of the fiscal year.
B. Depending on their financial processes, they should run the period-end closing utility at the
endof the fiscal year and also can run it at the end of each month.
C. Depending on their financial processes, they can run the period-end closing utility at the end
ofeach month and also at the end of each quarter.
D. Because they defined their sub-periods as months, the system requires them to run the
periodendclosing utility at the end of each month.
Answer: B

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NO.3 The sales manager wants to be informed when a sales employee issues an order that would
produce a gross profit less than 25%. However, he does not want the sales process to be blocked.
What is the easiest way to implement this?
A. Use an alert with a predefined condition for gross profit deviation.
B. Schedule the Sales Analysis report to run when the gross profit is below the threshold.
C. Add a user-defined field to the sales order document, with a query to report when the gross
profit is less than 25%.
D. Use an approval procedure with a predefined condition for gross profit deviation.
Answer: A

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NO.4 What happens when a default payment method for customers is changed in the General
Settings?
A. Any new customer master records will default to this payment method, but existing records
will
not change.
B. New and existing customer master records will automatically receive this payment method.
C. When a new customer master record is created, a pop up box will appear with a choice of
available payment methods listed in General Settings.
D. When a new customer master record is created, the default payment method is assigned and
cannot be changed.
Answer: A

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NO.5 When Jade Logistics creates a sales order, they want to see the description for the item so
they
can communicate this to the customer. How can this requirement be met?
A. In the sales order, right-mouse click in the item code field to see the item description.
B. This information is standard in the sales order and you can make it visible in the sales order
row using form settings.
C. Once an item is selected for the sales order, the description and other item specifications are
automatically provided in the Logistics tab of the order.
D. Add a user-defined field in the item row to display the description for the item.
Answer: B

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NO.6 Mike from Miller Inc. created a forecast showing a need for 100 staplers by June 1. Currently
thereare 10 staplers in inventory. Existing sales orders have a committed quantity of 50
staplers.When Mike runs MRP to produce a production order to manufacture staplers, the
recommendedproduction order is for 90 staplers. Why does MRP recommend this amount?
A. The maximum stock requirement is set to 90.
B. MRP never considers sales orders as demand.
C. The minimum stock requirement is set to 10.
D. The planning definitions are set to consume forecasts.
Answer: D

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NO.7 During Business Blueprint, the customer indicated they want to run perpetual inventory with
moving average valuation method. They went into production a week ago and they now
wantsome existing products to use standard cost valuation instead. How can this be
accomplished?
A. The moving average valuation method is only a default, and can be changed to standard cost
for an item at any time.
B. Once an item has been imported into SAP Business One, the valuation method is fixed and the
items must be deleted and re-imported to change the method.
C. As long as there are no open transactions and there is no inventory for the item, they can
change the valuation method.
D. They can move the items to an item group with the standard cost valuation method. This
automatically changes the valuation method.
Answer: C

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NO.8 Your client has asked for a report on service contract history. What is the easiest way to
identify
the correct fields needed in the report?
A. With a service contract in the active window, open the Query Wizard. It will automatically
showthe table and field names for the active window.
B. Open a service contract document and right-mouse click on a field to see the table and field
name.
C. Reference the DI-API online help the see the table and field names for the service contract
object.
D. Open a service contract and toggle the System Information view to see the table and field
names at the bottom of the screen.
Answer: D

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NO.9 SG Products will go live tomorrow. The A/R and A/P balances need to be transferred from
the
legacy system. How should the implementation consultant proceed to ensure that the A/R and
A/P
control accounts are correct and up to date in the new system?
A. Import all open sales and purchase orders from the legacy system. The control accounts will
then be correct.
B. Copy the balances from both the Profit and Loss and the Balance Sheet legacy accounts so
that the control accounts are correct.
C. Copy the A/P and A/R account balances from the legacy Balance Sheet. The control accounts
will then be correct.
D. Import the open invoice balances for each individual business partner. The control accounts
will
then be correct.
Answer: D

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NO.10 The client wants to continue the numbering of invoices from the legacy system, so that
there are
no gaps in the numbering. Additionally, sales quotations are issued by multiple employees, and
the numbering of sales quotations should continue for each employee. How can both these
requirements be implemented in SAP Business One?
A. In each user account, set the first and last document numbers for each document type.
B. Set the first invoice number using the document numbering function. In the same function
create multiple numbering series for sales quotations.
C. Set the first number for each type of document using the document numbering function.
D. Using the document settings function, set one document numbering range for invoices, and
multiple ranges for sales quotation documents.
Answer: B

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Exam Code: C-TFIN52-65
Exam Name: SAP (SAP Certified Application Associate - Financial Accounting with SAP ERP 6.0 EHP5)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 80 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-30

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NO.1 If a vendor is also a customer, it is possible to clear both roles against each other.
Which settings are necessary to implement this? (Choose two)
A. The "Clearing with Vendor" field must be selected in the customer account, and the
corresponding field
must be selected in the vendor account.
B. The vendor and the customer must be assigned to the same group account.
C. The vendor number must be entered in the customer account or the customer number
must be entered
in the vendor account.
D. The payment program must be set up to allow debit checks for vendors and credit checks
for
customers.
Answer: A,C

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NO.2 What are the prerequisites for setting up cross-company cost accounting? (Choose
two)
A. The same chart of accounts is used for all company codes.
B. The same fiscal year is used for all company codes.
C. The same variant for open periods is used for all company codes.
D. The same currency is used for all company codes.
Answer: A,B

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NO.3 You want to use external number assignment for specific document types.
What is the special feature of external number assignment?
A. The numbers can be alphanumeric.
B. The number ranges can overlap.
C. The number ranges can be used across all company codes.
D. The system issues the numbers automatically.
Answer: A

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NO.4 Which of the following objects can you post to via the cash journal? (Choose two)
A. Asset master
B. Accrual Engine
C. Customer
D. One-time customer
E. Material master
Answer: C,D

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NO.5 What is the maximum number of line items of an FI document?
A. Unlimited
B. 999
C. 99
D. 9999
Answer: B

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NO.6 Your customer runs an SAP ERP system with New General Ledger Accounting
activated.
What do you need to do for Profit Center updates to be part of the general ledger?
A. Activate transfer prices in Profit Center Accounting.
B. Set up the same group currency for all company codes and profit centers.
C. Deactivate document splitting for profit centers.
D. Assign the Profit Center Update scenario to the ledger.
Answer: D

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NO.7 What do you define when you configure a dunning procedure?
A. Dunning levels and the language of the dunning note
B. Dunning levels and account determination to post dunning interest
C. Dunning charges for each dunning level and customers to be dunned
D. Dunning levels and dunning charges for each dunning level
Answer: D

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NO.8 In a payment run, the data entered for a payment method in the document may differ
from the master
data.
How is this resolved by the system?
A. Document data overrides master data.
B. The payment run stops and the system issues an error message.
C. The payment run temporarily stops, and the system prompts you to correct the data. After
you have
corrected the data, the payment run continues.
D. Master data overrides document data.
Answer: A

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NO.9 What does the posting key control.? (Choose three)
A. Account type
B. Document type
C. Field status
D. Debit/credit indicator
E. Number range
Answer: A,C,D

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NO.10 Which of the following lists can be printed to help you edit a dunning proposal?
(Choose two)
A. Condensed master data
B. Blocked accounts
C. Blocked line items
D. Sales statistics
Answer: B,C

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Exam Code: C-PXSUP-90
Exam Name: SAP (SAP Certified Associate - Support Consultant for Incident Management with SAP Business All-in-One)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 80 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-30

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NO.1 How long are local system log entries kept available in SM21?
A. Until the next system restart
B. Until the entry is overwritten (circular file)
C. Until the name of the system log file is changed manually
D. Until the records are replicated to the central system log (usually after one hour)
Answer: B

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NO.2 What can you do if a program behaves differently in batch than in a dialog? (Choose
two)
A. Search globally in the program for SY-BATCH.
B. Run the program in dialog and change SY-BATCH in the debugger to simulate batch
processing.
C. Run the program in batch and click on DEBUGGING.
D. Run the program in batch and select Environment Analysis.
Answer: A,B

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NO.3 What is the function of the F4 key? (Choose two)
A. Display the possible entries.
B. Search for possible entries.
C. Add or remove a value to/from the list of possible entries.
D. Display documentation on possible entries.
Answer: A,B

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NO.4 What kind of function modules may include changes to database tables? (Choose two)
A. Normal function module
B. Remote enabled function module
C. Update function module
D. No function modules at all. Database changes are usually not performed in function
module.
Answer: B,C

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NO.5 You have to analyze a job that is currently processing a long running SELECT
statement on a
database table. Via transaction 'SM50 - details', you see that the read does not finish.
What can you do?
A. You have to wait until the program returns from the database. Afterwards, you can
continue analysis
(for example, with debugging or SQL-Trace).
B. You can analyze the currently processed statement using ST04 - detailed analysis.
C. You can analyze the currently processed statement by starting the SQL-Trace (ST05).
Answer: B

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NO.6 Which information is displayed when you choose the menu path System - Status?
(Choose two)
A. Transaction Code, for example, VA01
B. Development Class (Package), for example, VA
C. Database platform and release, for example, Oracle 8.0.5.1.1
D. Customer Number
Answer: A,C

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NO.7 How can you switch to the debugging mode?
A. Enter /h in the command field
B. Enter /debug in the command field
C. Enter /debugging in the command field
D. Choose Help? Debugging
Answer: A

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NO.8 Which of the following are events of a report program? (Choose two)
A. AT LINE-SELECTION
B. INITIALIZATION
C. PARAMETERS
D. AT TITLE-PAGE-OUTPUT
Answer: A,B

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NO.9 Which tool of the ABAP Workbench do you use to create global date types and
database tables?
A. ABAP Editor
B. Data Dictionary
C. Screen Painter
Answer: B

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NO.10 Which of the following transactions allows you to find out whether a particular ABAP
program (for
example, RMMMPERI or Z_DELETE_ALL_FI_DATA) has been executed at a certain time in
the past.?
(Choose two)
A. SM50 (Workprocess overview)
B. SM66 (Systemwide Workprocess overview)
C. ST03 (Workload analysis)
D. ST03N (Workload analysis)
Answer: C,D

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Exam Code: C-THR12-66
Exam Name: SAP (SAP Certified Application Associate - Human Capital Management with SAP ERP 6.0 EHP6)
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Total Q&A: 80 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-30

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NO.1 Which of the following are standard prerequisites for an employee to use the Manager's Self
Service? (Choose three)
A. The organizational structure has been developed for the company.
B. The employee is designated as a manager using the organizational key on IT0001
(Organizational Assignment).
C. The employee holds the chief position of an organizational unit.
D. The employee has an active user ID assigned on IT0105 (Communication).
E. The employee has authorization to use PA20 (Display Master Data) to display their employees'
data.
Answer: A,C,D

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NO.2 When processing payroll, the Payroll Administrator receives the error message "Division by 0 is
not possible" for one employee.
What could have caused this error?
A. The employee does not have an IT0008 (Basic Pay) with work hours per period.
B. The employee does not have a valid time management status assigned on IT0007 (Planned
Working Time).
C. Feature SCHKZ defaults the wrong work schedule rule on IT0007 (Planned Working Time).
D. Feature LGMST defaults the wrong indirect amount on IT0008 (Basic Pay).
Answer: A

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NO.3 Your employee receives a pay raise effective July 1st of the current year. What is the
recommended way to update IT0008 (Basic Pay)?
A. Choose the Delimit function and change the end date to June 30th.
B. Change the existing record effective July 1st.
C. Create a new record effective July 1st and delete the old record.
D. Create a new record effective July 1st.
Answer: D

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NO.4 You are setting up a time management process where all times are recorded. You want to
allow
the administrator to maintain alternate work schedules. Which method would you choose?
A. Positive time management with the addition of IT2004 (Availability)
B. Negative time management with the addition of IT2004 (Availability)
C. Negative time management with the addition of IT2003 (Substitutions)
D. Positive time management with the addition of IT2003 (Substitutions)
Answer: D

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NO.5 You need to set up a reminder to notify the customer about the expiry of probation periods of
employees one month in advance. The probation period is 3 months. What do you need to do?
(Choose two)
A. Define default values with DATAR feature.
B. Select Lead/Follow-Up Time and Operator Values on IT0041 (Date Specifications).
C. Set up a background job of the Date Monitoring report.
D. Set up a dynamic action that creates an IT0019 (Monitoring of Tasks) record during a hiring or
rehiring action.
Answer: C,D

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NO.6 Which report identifies and creates missing objects relevant for consistent integration
between
Personnel Administration and Organizational Management?
A. RHINTECHECK
B. RPUDEL20
C. RHINTE20
D. RPUDELPN
Answer: C

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NO.7 Which is the typical sequence of steps in an ASAP roadmap?
A. • Business Blueprint
• Project Preparation
• Final Preparation
• Realization
• Go Live Support
B. • Project Preparation
• Business Blueprint
• Realization
• Final Preparation
• Go Live Support
C. • Project Preparation
• Final preparation
• Business Blueprint
• Realization
• Go Live Support
D. • Project Preparation
• Realization
• Business Blueprint
• Final Preparation
• Go Live Support
Answer: B

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NO.8 In which logical database are you able to restrict the InfoSet using an object type?
A. PLOGI
B. PCH
C. PAP
D. PNPCE
Answer: B

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NO.9 An employee was on vacation. In addition to entering a vacation absence record, the
employee
also wants to create an overtime record on the same day. Which elements must be configured to
prevent this scenario? (Choose two)
A. The reaction indicator
B. The absence/attendance class
C. The time constraint class
D. The collision class
E. The availability indicator
Answer: A,C

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NO.10 Which two switches are mandatory to activate the integration between Personnel
Administration
and Organizational Management? (Choose two)
A. PLOGI ORGA
B. PLOGI PLOGI
C. PLOGI EVENB
D. PLOGI EVPAC
E. PLOGI PRELI
Answer: A,B

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NO.1 A customer asks you to configure an average calculation rule for hourly workers. The rule
should
determine an average daily overtime rate derived from all overtime earned during the previous
three months. Any retroactive changes in pay should be included.
What do you have to include in the configuration of the rule? (Choose three.)
A. Final processing rule
B. Cumulation rule
C. Time wage type selection rule
D. Adjustment rule
E. Processing class 01 rule
Answer: A,B,D

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5. A customer is concerned that WPBP splits on the IT input table may lead to overpayments.
What explanations do you provide to address their concerns? (Choose two.)
A. WPBP splits occur when an employee enters or leaves the company during a pay period. They
are used to prorate their pay accordingly.
B. WPBP splits occur when an employee's organizational assignment changes. They are used to
allocate personnel costs to the correct cost center.
C. WPBP splits occur when an employee's address changes during a pay period. They are used
to allocate benefit deductions to the correct provider.
D. WPBP splits occur when an employee's bank information changes during a pay period. They
are used to allocate payments to the correct account.
Answer: A,B

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NO.2 A customer wants to use the same wage type for a special payment such as hazardous pay and
have the rate vary by personnel area.
What do you have to configure?
A. Modif W and the table V_T539J (Base wage type valuation)
B. Modif 4 and the table V_T510S (Time wage type selection)
C. Modif 2 and the table V_T510J (Constant valuations)
D. Modif A and the table V_T554C (Absence valuation)
Answer: C

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NO.3 A customer continues to pay some employees for a period of time after they are terminated.
These
employees should also be processed in retro calculation runs.
What do you recommend?
A. Terminate the employee with the future date up to which you want to continue regular
processing and use the payroll driver to force any retro runs.
B. Terminate the employee and enter the date up to which you want to continue processing payroll
in the Accounted to field on IT0003.
C. Terminate the employee and enter the date up to which you want to continue processing payroll
in the Run Payroll up to field on IT0003.
D. Terminate the employee with the future date up to which you want to continue payroll
processing so they are included in regular and retro runs.
Answer: C

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NO.4 Your customer wants to automate off-cycle payroll tasks such as printing forms, execution of
posting run, and printing checks.
Which tool is best suited for this?
A. Payroll control record
B. Off-Cycle Workbench
C. HR Process Workbench
D. Interface Toolbox
Answer: C

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NO.1 Using rental contracts, which settings are mandatory for working with periodic billing?
(Choose
two)
A. Maintenance of a factory calendar that is assigned to the customer master
B. Assignment of a billing plan type to the item category of the rental contract item
C. Maintenance of a separate billing type that is assigned to the sales document type of the rental
contract
D. Assignment of the respective billing relevance (order-relevant billing – billing plan) to the item
category of the rental contract item
Answer: B,D

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NO.2 What Service Desk feature provides all the functions to analyze and monitor an entire SAP
solution centrally?
A. Root cause analysis
B. Implementation Roadmap
C. SAP Notes
D. SAP Solution Manager diagnostics
Answer: D

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NO.3 What can be identified as the most likely reason for a delivery split in a collective delivery run?
A. The shipping conditions of two separate items in the sales order differ from one another.
B. The sales order line items have the same route and the same shipping point, but different shipto
parties.
C. The physical weight of the total line items exceeds the capacity of the truck that is being used to
deliver the product.
D. The loading group of one of the items in the sales order differs from the others.
Answer: B

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NO.4 Which of the following statements regarding quantity contracts is correct?
A. Quantity contract items will show up in the delivery due list when ready for delivery.
B. Different requested delivery dates are maintained in the schedule lines of the quantity contract.
C. Quantity contracts contain details about the customer's requested delivery dates.
D. Quantity contracts are delivered using a contract release order.
Answer: D

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NO.5 For what purposes can you use transaction variants? (Choose two)
A. To define values in a selection screen for a report
B. To add new external fields to the sales document
C. To hide fields in a sales order
D. To define default values for data fields
Answer: C,D

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NO.6 In which of the following master records can partial delivery agreements be stored? (Choose
two)
A. In the customer material info record
B. In the material master record
C. In the condition master record
D. In the customer master record
Answer: A,D

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NO.7 Based on which of the following dates is the availability check (ATP) carried out?
A. Requested delivery date
B. Replenishment lead date
C. Material availability date
D. Goods issue date
Answer: C

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NO.8 What is used to determine the item category for general value contracts (WK1)?
A. Item category group
B. Value contract material
C. You do not need to determine item categories for value contracts
D. Item usage VCTR
Answer: D

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NO.9 As a member of the project team, you are asked to set up the system so that user has to enter
an
order reason when processing a sales order. It should be possible to save the incomplete order,
but further processing should not be possible until the Order Reason field is filled.
How do you implement this requirement?
A. You define an incompletion procedure with the Order Reason field and mark it as mandatory.
B. You define an incompletion procedure with the Order Reason field and assign a status group in
which the fields General, Delivery, and Billing Document are selected.
C. You define an incompletion procedure with the Order Reason field, assign it to the sales
document type, and set the status to "released for further process steps".
D. You define an incompletion procedure with the Order Reason field and assign it to a sales
document type that has the "Incompletion Message" indicator set.
Answer: B

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NO.10 Which SAP NetWeaver component realizes cross-system application processes?
A. SAP Exchange Infrastructure (SAP XI) / SAP Process Integration (SAP PI)
B. SAP Enterprise Portal (SAP EP)
C. SAP Master Data Management (SAP MDM)
D. SAP Business Warehouse (SAP BW)
Answer: A

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Exam Name: SAP (SAP Certified Support Associate - SAP HANA 1.0)
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Total Q&A: 89 Questions and Answers
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NO.1 Which of the following are held in SAP HANA used memory? (Choose two)
A. Free memory pool
B. Temporary computations
C. Heap memory
D. Column and row tables
Answer: B,D

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NO.2 How can you restore a default parameter configuration setting in the SAP HANA studio?
(Choose two)
A. In the context menu of a configuration parameter, choose Configure Table, and the Restore
Default.
B. In the context menu of a configuration parameter, choose Change, and then Restore Default.
C. In the context menu of a configuration parameter, choose Delete.
D. Choose Window-Preference-Administration Console and select Restore Defaults.
Answer: B,C

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NO.3 How can you set configurations at the system level using the SAP HANA studio?
A. Enter values in the System column in the Configuration tab in the Administration editor.
B. Right-click on a system in the Navigator pane and select Open Security from the context menu.
C. Right-click on a setting in the Configuration tab in the Administration editor, select Change, and
enter values for all hosts.
D. Enter values in the Properties view when you use the Overview tab of the Administration editor.
Answer: C

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NO.4 What do you have to consider when you want to unpartition an SAP HANA table? (Choose
three)
Unpartitioning blocks concurrent read access to the table during the process.
A. An exclusive lock on the table is required.
B. Unpartitioning can table a long time to complete.
C. Only read access is allowed during the unpartitioning process.
D. Only tables of more than 2 billion rows can be unpartitioned.
Answer: A,C,D

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NO.5 You granted a user the system privileges INIFILE ADMIN and DATA ADMIN. What does this
allow the user to do?
A. Modify the nameserver_history.trc files.
B. Reset the backup.log file.
C. Modify configuration files.
D. Reset the log.txt file
Answer: C

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NO.6 For which purposes can you use the Table locks system report?
A. To investigate locked table names
B. To unlock tables
C. To investigate table lock transaction owners
D. To kill locking transactions
Answer: A

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NO.7 Which part of an expensive statement trace would you investigate to identify possible
performance improvements?
A. Statement string
B. Statement length
C. TOTAL_LOCK_WAIT_TIME
D. ALLOC_MEM_SIZE_COLSTORE
Answer: A

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NO.8 In the SAP HANA studio Administration Editor, for the following purposes can you use the
Sessions subtab of the Performance tab? (Choose two)
A. To view memory consumption by session
B. To investigate blocking situations
C. To set up session-based alerts
D. To configure the maximum allowed concurrent sessions
Answer: A,B

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NO.9 An SAP HANA developer receives an error when running an SAP HANA Predictive Analysis
Library procedure. In which of the following files can you find more information?
A. Script server log
B. Index server log
C. Name server log
D. Statistics server log
Answer: D

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NO.10 In the SAP HANA studio, which of the following SQL thread details can you monitor by using
the Threads subtab of the Performance tab of the Administration editor? (Choose three)
A. The SQL statement
B. The generated data
C. The service name
D. The blocking status
E. The visual execution plan
Answer: B,C,D

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NO.11 Which parameters can you configure for an expensive statement trace? (Choose two)
A. Passport trace level
B. Threshold duration
C. Trace status
D. Trace file
Answer: B,C

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NO.12 In the SAP HANA studio, in which subtab of the Landscape tab of the Administration editor
can you check the statuses of all hosts in a high-availability scenario?
A. Configuration
B. Services
C. Secondary System Replication
D. Redistribution
Answer: A

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NO.13 Which of the following can you transport using CTS/CTS+? (Choose two)
A. Analytic privilege
B. Calculation view
C. Index
D. Table
Answer: A,B

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NO.14 Which of the following can you determine using the Backup catalog report? (Choose two)
A. The path for the backup files
B. Whether a recovery is possible
C. Which backup files are obsolete
D. When to execute the net backup
Answer: B,C

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NO.15 Which of the following events can trigger a delta merge? (Choose two)
A. Memory consumption of delta storage drops below a specified limit.
B. The delta log for a columnar table drops below a defined limit.
C. The delta log for a columnar table exceeds a defined limit.
D. Memory consumption of delta storage exceeds a specified limit.
Answer: C,D

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Exam Code: C-TPLM30-65
Exam Name: SAP (SAP Certified Application Associate - Enterprise Asset Management (Maintenance & Repair) with SAP ERP 6.0 EHP5)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 95 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-30

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Exam Code: C_TSCM42_66
Exam Name: SAP (SAP Certified Application Associate - Production - Planning & Manufacturing with SAP ERP 6.0 EHP6)
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Total Q&A: 80 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-30

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Exam Code: AP0-001
Exam Name: Acme-Packet (Acme Packet Certification Certification Exams Boot camp and Braindump)
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Total Q&A: 89 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-30

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NO.1 If upon examination of two configuration files you notice that the version number of the permanently
saved configuration differs from the version number of the running configuration, it means that
__________.
A.the saved configuration file has been edited, but the done command was not issued
B.the saved configuration file has been copied from flash into SDRAM using the save-config command
C.the saved configuration file has been saved into flash, but the activate-config command has not been
issued
D.the saved configuration file was copied from flash into SDRAM using the activate-config command
Answer:C

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NO.2 In a high availability (HA) scenario, if peers boot simultaneously and their health scores are equivalent,
which node automatically assumes the role of Active?
A.The node that had the role of active last.
B.The node that had the role of standby last.
C.The node with the highest Wancom IP address.
D.The node with the lowest Wancom IP address.
Answer:D

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NO.3 When associating network interfaces to a physical interface on the Net-Net 4000, the ___________
fields must contain the same unique ID.
A.sub-port-id
B.name
C.unique-id
D.identifier
Answer:B

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NO.4 When two associated H323 stacks in different realms have the gatekeeper parameter defined, which
one of the following statements is TRUE?
A.The Net-Net 4000 will proxy LRQ and LCF messages from one gatekeeper to the other and the TCP
connection for H.225.0 will be established afterwards.
B.The Net-Net 4000 will respond locally to the LRQ with a LCF, and upon receiving the SETUP on the
ingress leg, will open the TCP connection on the egress leg to send the SETUP.
C.It is not possible to have two associated H323 stacks when both have gatekeepers defined.
D.Registrations will be forwarded from one Gatekeeper to the other using unique RRQ messages.
Answer:A

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NO.5 Which one of the following statements about H.323 networks is FALSE?
A.The collection of all terminals, gateways, and MCU managed by a single gatekeeper is known as an
Autonomous System (AS).
B.Gateways are not mandatory in an H.323 network.
C.Gatekeepers are not mandatory in an H.323 network.
D.Gateways translate call set-up messages and convert media formats.
Answer:A

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NO.6 A steering pool defines ________________.
A.a range of IP addresses used to route media flows as they egress the box
B.a range of IP addresses and a pool of ports Net-Net 4000 will use to declare itself as the destination for
all subsequent media flows in a dialog
C.an IP address and range of ports the Net-Net 4000 will use to declare itself as the destination for media
flows in a session
D.an IP address and port the Net-Net 4000 uses for steering media to the external media server
Answer:C

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NO.7 The default baud rate for console connections to the Net-Net 4000 is ____________.
A.115200
B.2400
C.9600
D.56600
Answer:A

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NO.8 Which two of the following statements about SIP response code handling on the Net-Net 4000 are
TRUE?
A.The Net-Net 4000 will originate a 403 Forbidden response when bandwidth allocated to a realm has
been exhausted.
B.The Net-Net 4000 cannot originate 3xx class redirect responses.
C.The Net-Net 4000 egress realm selection may be affected by received third party 3xx class redirect
responses
D.The Net-Net 4000 can transmit a different SIP response code than it received.
Answer:C D

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NO.9 Which two of the following statements regarding SIP processing are FALSE?
A.An initial INVITE will contain a From header tag and a To header tag as a globally unique identifier for
the dialog.
B.To avoid retransmissions, User Agents must forward received 100 Trying messages to their next hop.
C.Calls Per Second are typically measured using a 7-10 message SIP call flow including call set-up and
tear down.
D.The combination of the To tag, From tag, and Call-ID completely defines a peer-to-peer SIP relationship
and is referred to as a dialog.
Answer:A B

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NO.10 In an H.323 network, a __________ provides translation services and communication between
dissimilar networks.
A.gatekeeper
B.gateway
C.multipoint control unit
D.codec
Answer:B

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NO.11 The Net-Net 4000 is the source and destination for all signaling messages and media streams coming
into and leaving the provider's network. Which two of the following SIP functions does it provide?
A.edge proxy
B.registrar
C.Back to Back User Agent
D.media gateway
Answer:A C

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NO.12 To view an existing multiple instance element configuration you can go to the correct branch of the
configuration tree and _______________.
A.select the element and then issue the show command
B.enter the name of the element and then issue the show command
C.type show and select from the displayed list
D.type show
Answer:A

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NO.13 Best current practice for the initial turn-up of a secondary node in a highly available (HA) pair calls for
the acquire-config command targeting the ____________________interface on the primary node.
A.Wancom0
B.Wancom1
C.Wancom2
D.Wancom3
Answer:A

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NO.14 In a(n) __________ exchange, a Master Slave Determination message is an example of a type of
message that might be exchanged during the media setup portion of the call.
A.RAS
B.ISDN
C.H.245
D.H.225
Answer:C

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NO.15 High availability (HA) nodes identify one another by their __________ names.
A.Identifier
B.Host
C.mib-system-name
D.target
Answer:D

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