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Exam Code: MOFF-EN
Exam Name: EXIN (Microsoft Operations Framework Foundation)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 73 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-24

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NO.1 Does the Team SMF ensure that someone is ultimately accountable for the work required in
the Plan Phase?
A. Yes
B. No
Answer: A

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NO.2 What is a process within the Service Monitoring and Control SMF?
A. Continuous monitoring
B. Purge event logs
C. Service monitoring requirements
D. Static monitoring definition
Answer: A

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NO.3 Which SMF has 'Filter the problem' as a process step?
A. Customer Service
B. Service Monitoring and Control
C. Operations
D. Problem Management
Answer: D

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NO.4 What does the Reliability SMF process flow include?
A. Assess, monitor and control risk
B. Define service requirements
C. Ensure good service
D. Maintain work instructions
Answer: B

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NO.5 Does the concept ision?identify what a project team can accomplish within its
constraints?Does the concept ?ision?identify what a project team can accomplish within its
constraints?
A. Yes
B. No
Answer: B

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Exam Code: 2B0-103
Exam Name: Enterasys Networks (Enterasys Security Systems Engineer-NAC)
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Total Q&A: 25 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-24

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NO.1 What is the minimum number of Assessment Servers required to implement end-system assessment?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Answer: A

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NO.2 What failed action(s) can be specified for the Lock MAC configuration
A. Reject
B. Use User Override
C. User MAC Override
D. All of the above
Answer: A

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NO.3 Which of the following are required fields to import a User override from a file?
A. User Name
B. Configuration Template
C. Security Domain
D. All of the Above
Answer: D

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NO.4 Which of the following information is required for creating a MAC Override?
A. Switch IP address
B. Configuration Template
C. MAC
D. All of the above
Answer: D

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NO.5 What type of end systems will not interact with Enterasys Sentinel?
A. Unmanaged PCs (i.e. PCs not under the administrative control of IT operations)
B. Managed PCs (i.e. PCs under the administrative control of IT operations)
C. IP Phones, IP cameras, printer
D. None of the Above
Answer: D

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Exam Code: E20-455
Exam Name: EMC (Content Management Web Application Programming Exam)
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Total Q&A: 153 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-24

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NO.1 Given the following onInit() methods for two components:
In component A:
public void onInit(ArgumentList args)
{
super.onInit(args);
ArgumentList args2= new ArgumentList();
args2.add("MyArg", "MyValue");
setComponentNested ("B", args2, getContext(), this);
}
In component B:
public void onInit(ArgumentList args)
{
super.onInit(args);
String myVal = args.get("MyArg");
System.out.println (myVal);
}
The println statement returns null for myVal.
What is the likely cause of this?
A. ArgumentLists can not be passed between components.
B. ArgumentLists always start out empty in onInit() methods.
C. MyArg is not defined in the <params> element of the component definition B.
D. The ArgumentList for component A is independent of the ArgumentList for component B.
Answer: C

EMC   E20-455   E20-455

NO.2 Given the following fragment:
<contains>
<component>newFolder</component>
<component>attributes</component>
<component requiresVisit='true'>permissions</component>
</contains>
Which statement is true?
A. The container will commit changes upon visit to each component.
B. The permissions component must be viewed before the container can commit changes.
C. The OK button will be enabled upon viewing the newFolder component.
D. The permissions component will be the default component within the container.
Answer: B

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NO.3 Your employer asks you to rename the custom folder for your WDK application to "datasink."
Which XML entry represents the correct means of changing the custom folder's name?
A. <custom>
<application>
<application-name>AppFolderName</param-name>
<application-value>datasink</param-value>
</application>
...
B. <config>
<app-param>
<param-name>AppFolderName</param-name>
<param-value extends="webtop/custom">datasink</param-value>
</app-param>
...
C. <web-inf>
<context-param>
<param-name>AppFolderName</param-name>
<param-value inherits="webtop/custom">datasink</param-value>
</context-param>
...
D. <web-app>
<context-param>
<param-name>AppFolderName</param-name>
<param-value>datasink</param-value>
</context-param>
...
Answer: D

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NO.4 You are creating a component that requires verification to determine if the OK button can be selected.
Which container method can be overridden to implement this functionality?
A. onOK()
B. onNextPage()
C. onCommitChanges()
D. canCommitChanges()
Answer: D

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NO.5 Which statement is true about action and component XML definitions?
A. Actions and components always require parameters.
B. Actions and components have layouts/presentations.
C. Action and component dispatchers use the same qualifiers.
D. Action and component definitions may contain preconditions.
Answer: C

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NO.6 Which order represents the default Preset precedence?
A. location, user, role, object type
B. user, object type, role, location
C. user, role, object type, location
D. location, role, user, object type
Answer: A

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NO.7 For what can a qualifier be used?
A. to filter valid data to be displayed
B. to check permissions during authentication
C. to scope and filter actions and components
D. to check data against the data dictionary
Answer: C

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NO.8 According to the diagram, which component definition will be used for all instances of the type
sop_doc? Assume all four definitions exist in the application.
A. <config version="1.0">
<scope type="dm_sysobject">
<component id="checkin">
...
</component>
</scope>
</config>
B. <config version="1.0">
<scope type="corporate_docs">
<component id="checkin">
...
</component>
</scope>
</config>
C. <config version="1.0">
<scope type="procedure_doc">
<component id="checkin">
...
</component>
</scope>
</config>
D. <config version="1.0">
<scope type="dm_folder">
<component id="checkin">
...
</component>
</scope>
</config>
Answer: B

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NO.9 What makes up a component definition file?
A. pages, parameters, NLS, description
B. pages, behavior, NLS, controls
C. pages, behavior, parameters, events
D. behavior, scope, NLS, actions
Answer: A

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NO.10 Where are the WDK servlets defined?
A. app.xml
B. wdk.xml
C. web.xml
D. server.xml
Answer: C

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NO.11 Which type of container provides breadcrumb control functionality?
A. dialogcontainer
B. wizardcontainer
C. combocontainer
D. navigationcontainer
Answer: D

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NO.12 Which code fragment lists the components for a container?
A. <contains>
<component>attributes</component>
<component>permissions</component>
<component>history</component>
</contains>
B. <pages>
<component>attributes</component>
<component>permissions</component>
<component>history</component>
</pages>
C. <include>
<component>attributes</component>
<component>permissions</component>
<component>history</component>
</include>
D. <params>
<component>attributes</component>
<component>permissions</component>
<component>history</component>
</params>
Answer: A

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NO.13 You have implemented a custom authentication scheme, MyAuthenticationScheme.
To what must you add your scheme to ensure it is active?
A. in a properties file under the custom directory
B. in the app.xml under the custom directory
C. in a properties file under the WEB-INF/classes directory
D. in the web.xml under the WEB-INF directory
Answer: C

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NO.14 Where do you register a custom theme?
A. app.xml
B. BrandingServiceProp.properties
C. webforms.css
D. web.xml
Answer: A

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NO.15 You have written a custom authentication scheme and have correctly added the scheme to the system.
You discover a problem in the code, which causes the scheme to always return null.
How does the null return value affect authentication in Webtop?
A. Any remaining schemes are skipped, and the login dialog is presented immediately.
B. Any remaining schemes are attempted, where the login dialog is usually the final authentication
scheme.
C. The scheme throws a null pointer exception and prevents other schemes from authenticating.
D. The scheme automatically logs the user in as the repository administrator.
Answer: B

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NO.16 Where must component configuration files be located?
A. anywhere within application directories
B. in the config directory only
C. in the config directory and its subdirectories
D. anywhere, since the location is configurable
Answer: C

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NO.17 How do you make only one theme available to users?
A. You include only one theme definition in the application configuration file in the custom layer.
B. You set the visible attribute of the dmf:datadropdownlist control for the theme to false.
C. You delete all the theme directories except the one you want from custom/themes.
D. You remove all but one theme definition from the application configuration file in the webcomponent
layer.
Answer: A

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NO.18 Which statement is true about the inheritance of elements between application layers?
A. Elements are inherited from lower layers if they are not overridden in the higher layers.
B. Elements are inherited from lower layers only if they are overridden in the higher layers.
C. Elements are inherited from all application layers regardless of application layer hierarchy.
D. Elements are only inherited from application layers that are at the same level in the application layer
hierarchy.
Answer: A

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NO.19 You have a component that is contained within a dialogcontainer.
What are the correct criteria to display the Close button?
A. canCommitChanges() returns false and canCancelChanges() returns false
B. canCommitChanges() returns true and canCancelChanges() returns false
C. canCommitChanges() returns false and canCancelChanges() returns true
D. canCommitChanges() returns true and canCancelChanges() returns true
Answer: A

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NO.20 The highest level application layer of a WDK application is defined in which file?
A. app.xml
B. conf.xml
C. wdk.xml
D. web.xml
Answer: D

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NO.21 How do you automatically include a custom JavaScript file to be in all of your JSPs?
A. by adding a reference to the component configuration file
B. by specifying it as an application parameter in the app.xml
C. by appending a reference to the Javascript file WebformScripts.properties
D. by using the <@ page import="custom/myUtils.js"> directive
Answer: C

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NO.22 Which statement is true about Trusted Authentication Scheme (Principal Support)?
A. It disables authentication through the Content Server.
B. It allows a superuser account to impersonate any given user.
C. The application server user name must not match a repository superuser.
D. A non-superuser account may be used to obtain login tickets.
Answer: B

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NO.23 Which authentication scheme enables safe automatic login by passing credentials in the URL?
A. Docbase Login Authentication Scheme
B. User Principal Authentication Scheme
C. Uniform Resource Locator Authentication Scheme
D. Ticketed Authentication Scheme
Answer: D

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NO.24 Which diagram represents a typical Component Processing Sequence?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Answer: A

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NO.25 Given the following code: fragment:
<scope type="dm_folder">
<component id="delete" notdefined="true" />
</scope>
Which statement is true about the notdefined attribute?
A. The delete component is available for dm_folder types, but not for dm_cabinet types.
B. The delete component is available for dm_folder and dm_cabinet types, but not for dm_document
types.
C. The delete component is available for dm_document types, but not for dm_folder or dm_cabinet types.
D. The delete component is available for dm_document, dm_folder and dm_cabinet types.
Answer: C

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NO.26 Which is true about Presets?
A. Presets are not used to provide security
B. Presets descend to subfolders
C. Presets applied to a folder do not apply to the files imported into the folder
D. Presets only comprise of a single rule each
Answer: A

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NO.27 Given the following fragment:
<filter role="contributor, not administrator">
...
</filter>
Which roles will be allowed to use the definition within this filter element?
A. contributors, coordinators, consumers and administrators
B. contributors, coordinators, and consumers, but not administrators
C. contributors, coordinators, but not administrators or consumers
D. contributors, but not administrators, coordinators or consumers
Answer: C

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NO.28 You do not see the Presets option in Webtop. What could be a possible reason?
A. The Content Server does not have a license for Presets.
B. The BOF registry entry is incorrect in the dfc.properties file.
C. You are not a superuser.
D. You are not a system administrator.
Answer: B

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NO.29 Which directories are representative of application layers in a default Webtop installation?
A. WEB-INF and webtop
B. WEB-INF and wdk
C. custom and webtop
D. custom and help
Answer: C

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NO.30 If you want a new application layer in between the custom and webtop layers, then which file should
you extend?
A. \custom\app.xml
B. \webtop\app.xml
C. \WEB-INF\web.xml
D. \webtop\main_component.xml
Answer: B

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Exam Name: EMC (Content Management System Administration)
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Total Q&A: 169 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-24

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NO.1 What is the purpose of the Consistency Checker?
A. to check for object corruption within the repository and provide a report
B. to check and correct object corruption within the repository and provide a report
C. to check the file stores for corruption and provide a report
D. to check the repository for corruption, fix the problem, and provide a report
Answer: A

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NO.2 A user is not able to create a document in a repository.
How do you diagnose the problem?
A. check for sufficient swap space/virtual memory and check for sufficient database space
B. check for sufficient file storage space and check for sufficient database space
C. check for sufficient file storage space and check for sufficient swap space/virtual memory
D. check that the server log is not full
Answer: B

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NO.3 What are the minimum prerequisite components for a Documentum Administrator installation on a
dedicated application server host?
A. database client, application server, and Java SDK
B. application server, Java SDK, and web server
C. application server and Java SDK
D. application server, Java SDK, PHP, and Perl
Answer: C

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NO.4 Which statement is FALSE regarding resource agents?
A. Resource agents allow you to specify a minimum log level to view.
B. Resource agents allow you to change configuration settings.
C. Resource agents provide another way to receive notifications.
D. Resource agents cannot execute operations.
Answer: D

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NO.5 What is a resource agent?
A. It is a JMX-based monitoring tool that is accessible using Documentum Administrator.
B. It is a feature of Application Builder, used to help manage lifecycles.
C. It is a process used in conjunction with the Index Server to provide full-text indexing.
D. It is a feature of WDK which allows administrators to more easily deploy components given to them by
a developer.
Answer: A

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NO.6 By default, what is stored specifically in the DOCUMENTUM\dba\secure directory?
A. keystore(s) for certificates used by LDAP over SSL
B. encrypted database user passwords for repository owners
C. encrypted passphrase for the Content Server installation
D. keystores used for Trusted Content Services
Answer: C

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NO.7 In addition to a supported OS, what is the minimal requirement for a successful Content Server
installation and repository configuration?
A. database software and Java SDK
B. Java SDK
C. database software, Java SDK, and application server
D. database software
Answer: D

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NO.8 When using a resource agent to view a log, which option CANNOT be used to sort the log entries?
A. Log level
B. Event type
C. Severity
D. From the first entry to the last entry
Answer: B

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NO.9 What is the correct API syntax for retrieving the r_object_id of a dm_document with the name, 'test1'?
A. retrieve,c,dm_folder where object_name='test1'
B. id,c,select dm_sysobject where object_name='test1'
C. retrieve,c,select dm_document where object_name='test1'
D. id,c,dm_sysobject where object_name='test1'
Answer: D

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NO.10 A user has left your company. There is an object that is still checked out by that user.
How would you remove the lock from this document?
A. delete the user using Documentum Administrator and all the documents checked out to this user will
automatically have the lock removed
B. change the r_lock_owner attribute of the document to "dmadmin"; dmadmin will now own the
document and can cancel checkout
C. unlock the document using the API
D. check the document in using a superuser account
Answer: C

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NO.11 After installing the Content Server, you change the default passphrase.
What utility script must be run when the Content Server is restarted?
A. dm_check_password
B. dm_crypto_boot
C. dm_crypto_create
D. dm_change_password
Answer: B

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NO.12 What must exist in an API script to dump your repository?
A. dump,c,dmr_content
B. dump,c,dmr_containment
C. create,c,dmi_dump_object_record
D. create,c,dm_dump_record
Answer: D

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NO.13 When installing the Content Server, the installer deploys several default services which run on the
Java Method Server.
Which services are deployed?
A. Accelerated Content Services (ACS), Branch Office Caching Services (BOCS), Documentum
Messaging Services (DMS)
B. Accelerated Content Services (ACS), Documentum Foundation Services (DFS)
C. Accelerated Content Services (ACS), Documentum Messaging Services (DMS), Documentum
Foundation Services (DFS)
D. Documentum Foundation Services (DFS), Branch Office Caching Services (BOCS)
Answer: B

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NO.14 During the configuration of a repository you provide the following information: repository ID, repository
name, and database owner.
Where does Documentum store this information?
A. dfc.properties
B. server.ini
C. [repository name].ini
D. docbroker.ini
Answer: B

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NO.15 Which user account will be used when running the Repository Configuration program?
A. superuser
B. installation owner
C. web user
D. database user
Answer: B

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NO.16 How do you delete a repository?
A. use Documentum Administrator to delete the files used for the repository's tablespaces
B. use Documentum Server Manager
C. select Configuration > Repository option in Documentum Administrator
D. use any database utility to drop the tablespaces used by the repository
Answer: B

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NO.17 Your repository dump has just completed. <DUMP_RECORD_OBJECT_ID> is the object id of your
dm_dump_record.
Which DQL statement would you run to determine how many repository objects were copied into your
dump file?
A. select count(*) from dmi_dump_object_record where dump_object =
'<DUMP_OBJECT_RECORD_ID>'
B. select count(*) from dm_sysobject where r_object_id in (select <DUMP_OBJECT_RECORD_ID> from
dm_dump_record)
C. select count(*) from dm_dump_record where dump_object = '<DUMP_OBJECT_RECORD_ID>'
D. select count(*) from dmr_content where r_object_id = '<DUMP_OBJECT_RECORD_ID>'
Answer: A

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NO.18 A repository has an installation owner account 'dmadmin' and a repository owner account 'sop.'
What is the difference between these two accounts?
A. The Documentum installation owner and the repository owner accounts have identical roles.
B. The Documentum installation owner is a regular user in a repository; the repository owner has
administrative rights over the repository.
C. The Documentum installation owner is a superuser in the repository; the repository owner account
owns the database tables used by the repository.
D. While both users have administration privileges, the installation owner owns the repository database
tables.
Answer: C

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NO.19 Which specific directories do the DM_HOME and DOCUMENTUM environment variables represent in
a Content Server installation with one or more repositories?
A. DM_HOME is the base directory for all Content Server binaries and repository configurations;
DOCUMENTUM is the working directory used by server processes.
B. DM_HOME is the directory for the Content Server binaries; DOCUMENTUM is the base directory
under which all binaries and repository configurations are stored.
C. DM_HOME is the base directory under which all binaries and repository configurations are stored;
DOCUMENTUM is the directory for the Content Server binaries.
D. DM_HOME and DOCUMENTUM have the same value and point to the base directory for all server
binaries and repository configurations.
Answer: B

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NO.20 What are the minimal user account settings and access rights needed by the designated BOF Global
Registry user?
A. The user has an inline password and has READ only access to the /System/Modules/SBO folder in the
repository.
B. The user has an OS or Directory Server account and has READ only access to the
/System/Modules/SBO folder in the repository.
C. The user has an inline password and has READ only access to the /System/Modules/SBO folder and
the folders/documents in the repository that will be accessed using SBOs.
D. The user has an inline password and has READ only access to the entire repository.
Answer: A

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NO.1 Which EMC NetWorker feature is used to perform a backup based on an event?
A. Application modules
B. Directives
C. Scheduled backups
D. Probe-based backups
Answer: D

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NO.2 You are asked to propose a serverless backup solution for the following environment:
Which EMC product would you recommend to support this environment?
A. RecoverPoint
B. Avamar
C. Data Domain
D. NetWorker
Answer: C

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NO.3 An EMC NetWorker customer wants to start performing client backups to a deduplication
node. What is a requirement when scheduling these backups using NetWorker?
A. First backup must be a full backup
B. Database backups must be full backups
C. All backups must be full backups
D. Schedule must not include any incremental backups
Answer: A

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NO.4 An EMC NetWorker customer needs to improve the RTO for all backups retained onsite. Most
of the backup jobs consist of images and other scientific data. The customer requires daily tape out
for long-term offsite retention. Which product addresses these challenges?
A. EMC Disk Library
B. NetWorker deduplication node
C. Avamar
D. Data Domain
Answer: B

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NO.5 An EMC customer has an EMC NetWorker server running on a Microsoft Windows host and
two storage nodes running on Solaris hosts. Data Protection Advisor (DPA) will be installed on a
separate Windows host. The customer requires that system performance information be collected
from the backup server and all storage nodes.
A Collector will be installed on the DPA server by default. At a minimum, how many additional
Collectors need to be deployed?
A. 0
B. 1
C. 2
D. 3
Answer: C

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NO.6 An EMC NetWorker customer has added the following application to their environment:
What is a requirement to perform serverless backups?
A. NetWorker storage node software needs to be installed on the Exchange server
B. NetWorker Module for Microsoft Applications needs to be installed on the proxy server
C. NetWorker Module for Exchange and NetWorker VSS Client for Microsoft Windows
D. NetWorker Module for Exchange needs to be installed on the NetWorker server
Answer: C

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NO.7 An administrator wants to back up an EMC Celerra with Avamar using a single NDMP
accelerator node. Based on EMC best practices, what is the maximum number of files that can be
backed up per backup job?
A. 5 million
B. 10 million
C. 15 million
D. 20 million
Answer: B

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NO.8 Which technology is used in an EMC Disk Library to provide tolerance against a double drive
failure?
A. RAIN
B. RAID 6
C. Remote Copy
D. Active Engine Failover
Answer: B

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NO.9 The backup window of a customer using tape as a target for the current backup solution has
increased over the allowed time. The customer needs to reduce the backup window by adding an
intermediary process to a faster device before going to tape. What is that process?
A. Archiving
B. Rotation
C. Consolidation
D. Staging
Answer: B

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NO.10 Which Avamar node is dedicated to providing internal Avamar server processes and services?
A. Spare
B. Storage
C. Utility
D. Accelerator
Answer: C

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NO.11 An Avamar customer has just deployed a VMware environment. The customer wants to
ensure they receive the highest level of deduplication within the environment. Which type of
backup should be performed?
A. Guest
B. VCB proxy host
C. VADP
D. ESX console
Answer: B

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NO.12 Where is deduplicated data stored on a Data Domain system?
A. SATA drives
B. NVRAM
C. SCSI drives
D. PATA drives
Answer: A

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NO.1 What are the key differences between SIRT in 5772 and SIRT in Symmetrix V-Max with 5874?
A. SIRT in 5874 is enabled for all write sizes or if RTT > 115 microsec
B. SIRT in 5874 is enabled for write sizes up to 64 KB or RTT threshold > 520 microsec
C. SIRT in 5874 is enabled for all write sizes or if RTT < 115 microsec
D. SIRT in 5874 is enabled for write sizes up to 128 KB or if RTT < 115 microsec
Answer: A

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NO.2 A customer's application is stored on a DMX-4. The application runs 24x7x365. They would like to send
consistent replicas of this data simultaneously to four branch offices on a nightly basis. The branch offices
have CLARiiON arrays.
Which solution would you recommend?
A. Use TimeFinder/Mirror to create a consistent replica of the production application. Then use Open
Replicator cold push to replicate the data from the BCVs to the remote offices.
B. Use Open Replicator cold push to replicate the data to the remote offices.
C. Use Open Replicator hot push to replicate the data to the remote offices.
D. Use TimeFinder/Snap to create a consistent replica of the production application. Then use Open
Replicator cold push to replicate the data on the VDEVs to the remote offices.
Answer: A

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NO.3 The customer has a DMX-4 replicating to another DMX-4 (microcode level 5773 for both) over an
SRDF/S session between two sites 20 km apart and wants to understand the limitation (if any) of using
the Single Round Trip (SiRT) feature on RF directors. What is the applicable limitation of the setup?
A. SiRT only works for an I/O size of less than 32 KB.
B. SiRT is enabled for all block sizes.
C. SiRT would not work because the distance is greater than 12 km.
D. SiRT only works for SRDF/A.
Answer: A

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NO.4 Click the Calculator icon in the upper left-hand corner.
SRDF/S over Fibre Channel has been configured between two V-Max arrays that are 50 kilometers apart.
What is the expected write response time delay due to latency?
A. 0.25 ms
B. 0.5 ms
C. 1 ms
D. 2 ms
Answer: C

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NO.5 A customer has a single V-Max and you are helping to design a new SRDF solution. This customer
wants to replicate all its data with SRDF over a Gigabit Ethernet.
In order to get the maximum benefit from scaling, what is the most important consideration?
A. All GigE ports on the source should be able to see all GigE ports on the target array
B. Ports must have auto-negotiation off because we don't support Jumbo Frames
C. Speed limit value in the Symmetrix configuration file (not persistent)
D. Speed limits can be set on GigE ports from 100 to 10000 Mb (megabits)
Answer: A

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NO.6 The customer wants a TimeFinder/Snap solution to create a point in time prior to modifying the source
data for testing purposes. The snap would be kept for 8 hours. How should the Change Tracker data
collection be set up to model the solution?
A. Sum report with a reset of 4 hours
B. Delta report with a reset of 16 hours
C. Delta report with a reset of 4 hours
D. Delta report with a reset of 8 hours
Answer: D

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NO.7 A customer is planning to implement SRDF/S into their environment. The customer wants zero data
loss if they lose their primary data center (R1). The distance is 1,000 miles, and the customer would like to
maintain an application response time of 10 ms.
Which design would you implement?
A. SRDF/AR single-hop
B. SRDF/AR multi-hop
C. SRDF/DM
D. SRDF/S with adaptive copy initially
Answer: B

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NO.8 A customer is implementing a new SRDF/S environment with DMX arrays. The primary and secondary
data centers are 20 kilometers apart.
Which consideration is needed for planning, designing, and implementing a synchronous solution?
A. Ensure that the application can tolerate the additional latency
B. Ensure that adequate cache on the arrays is allocated
C. Ensure that the RAID configuration is identical on both arrays
D. Ensure that there is twice the recommended amount of bandwidth
Answer: A

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NO.9 The customer wants to replace the three DMX 2000s with a single Symmetrix V-Max using Open
Replicator hot pull for the move. What sequence of steps should be taken to get ready for the copy
sessions?
LUN Masking of DMX 2000 remote volumes to the V-Max FA ports.
V-Max and DMX 2000 arrays are reachable via the same fabric or SAN extension.
FA ports of V-Max are zoned to FA ports of the three DMX 2000s.
V-Max and DMX 2000 arrays are reachable via point-to-point or FC-AL.
LUN Masking of the V-Max control volumes to the DMX 2000 FA ports.
All V-Max FAs have access to the DMX 2000 volumes being migrated.
A. 4,6,1,3
B. 4,3,5,6
C. 2,3,1,6
D. 2,3,5,6
Answer: C

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NO.10 A company has a Symmetrix V-Max array in an open systems environment. They want to use
TimeFinder/Snap to create a single copy per day of a production environment containing 200 volumes of
8 GB each. Twenty-five percent of the total I/O in the application is write activity.
What is the amount of physical storage required for all VDEVs?
A. 50 GB
B. 4 GB
C. 8 GB
D. 0 GB
Answer: D

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NO.11 A customer is running SRDF/A single session mode. They want to change into SRDF/S mode after
nightly periods of high write activity have completed. The switch to synchronous mode failed.
What is a potential cause for this failure?
A. SRDF/S cycle switching feature is not enabled.
B. Mode change feature is only supported with Concurrent SRDF.
C. SDRF/A write cache is not enabled at the remote site.
D. Fifty percent or more of SRDF/A write cache is in use on the target Symmetrix.
Answer: D

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NO.12 An Open Replicator data migration from a HDS to Symmetrix array is being proposed. The customer
has the following requirements: Application downtime should be minimal and Open Replicator session
failure must not result in data loss
Which solution will meet the customer's requirements?
A. Cold pull with precopy
B. Cold pull with donor update
C. Hot pull with donor update
D. Hot pull with precopy
Answer: C

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NO.13 A customer is migrating their Windows 2008 servers from HP storage to EMC V-Max storage.
Host-based performance metrics need to be used to design a configuration. EMC recommends the
diskperf -Y command to enable I/O statics in every server.
Why is enabling disk statistics collection recommended?
A. It improves performance of the servers
B. Otherwise, a reboot will be required to activate
C. Otherwise, you must start Performance Monitor
D. Because Windows 2008 leaves the default value to off
Answer: B

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NO.14 A customer wants to migrate from DMX-3 with 5772 to DMX-4 with 5773 code. They are using
TimeFinder/Clone every night for backup processing with synchronous COFW. TimeFinder/Clone with
5773 allows them to use a new feature called asynchronous COFW.
How many back-end operations does TimeFinder/Clone make with Enginuity 5773 using Aynchronous
COFW compared with TimeFinder/Clone with Enginuity 5772?
A. Back-end operations are lower with 5773 Enginuity.
B. Back-end operations are the same in both Enginuity versions.
C. Back-end operations are higher with 5773 Enginuity.
D. Depends on disk speed and RAID protection.
Answer: B

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NO.15 The customer wants a TimeFinder/Snap solution to create a point in time prior to modifying the source
data for testing purposes with a 16-hour RPO.
How should the Change Tracker data collection be set up to model the solution.?
A. Delta report with a reset of 8 hours
B. Delta report with a reset of 16 hours
C. Delta report with a reset of 4 hours
D. Sum report with a reset of 8 hours
Answer: B

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Exam Code: EVP-101
Exam Name: EMC (2011 VSE Backup and Recovery Product and Technology Test)
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Total Q&A: 31 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-24

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NO.1 In NetWorker integration with Data Domain Boost, in which component does the processing handled by
the DD Boost library occur?
A. NetWorker storage node
B. Data Domain system
C. NetWorker server
D. NetWorker client
Answer: D

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NO.2 Please check the option that best describes your relationship with EMC:
A. EMC Employee
B. EMC Customer/Partner
C. Other
Answer: B

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NO.3 In order to quickly identify segments, what is stored in Data Domain along with data segments?
A. Fingerprint
B. Parity bit
C. File catalog
D. Protection bit map
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Exam Code: E20-885
Exam Name: EMC (VNX Solutions Expert Exam for Implementation Engineers)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 163 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-24

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NO.1 A system administrator wants to migrate medical-imaging data stored on an EMC VNX. The host
connects to the VNX via iSCSI. The IP SAN infrastructure has recently been updated to support 1 Gb/10
GB switching. The system administrator wants to maximize data transfer performance. What would you
recommend?
A. Implement 10 Gb/s iSCSI connection using a 9000 byte frame.
B. Use a 4 KB memory page size.
C. Implement 10 Gb/s iSCSI connection using a 2400 byte frame.
D. Increase the write-aside value.
Answer: A

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NO.2 A customer has two EMC VNX, one at the primary site and the other at a DR site located 100 km away.
The WAN connection between sites is a 100 Mb/s dark fiber link with 4 ms latency.
A previous storage administrator configured the pool LUNs for the file system on thin LUNs. The file
system is growing at a rate of 500 GB per week and is on a VDM. The new storage administrator reports
performance issues with the file system.
What is the most likely reason for the performance issue?
A. Thin LUNs are used for the file system.
B. The WAN link should be upgraded to an eLAN.
C. The VNX system requires an upgrade.
D. The file system has too many concurrent users connected.
Answer: A

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NO.3 A customer wants to replicate a CIFS environment from a legacy EMC Celerra to a new EMC VNX.
Users are able to access CIFS shares from both arrays. The CIFS shares are on different networks and
replication is not running. The customer wants to make sure there will be no network restrictions
preventing replication between the data movers on two different networks.
What TCP ports should they ask the network team to open?
A. 8888, 8887, 5081
B. 80, 443, 8080
C. 5057, 445, 5087
D. 23, 25, 22
Answer: A

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NO.4 A customer has two identically configured Linux hosts (OS version, memory, CPU) attached to the
same network. One host is NFS-attached and the other is FC-attached to an EMC VNX. Both the NFS file
systems and the SAN LUNs are created from four RAID 5 (4+1) RAID groups. LUNs are not shared
between file and block.
The customer reports NFS-attached host is able to achieve much greater throughput via NFSv4 versus
the FC-attached host.
What is the source of the performance difference between the file and block configurations?
A. FC encapsulation overhead
B. I/O size
C. Host Patch levels
D. NFS version
Answer: B

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NO.5 Click on the calculator icon in the upper left-hand corner.
A SQL database requires 1,000 I/O per second with 85% reads and 15% writes. If RAID 1/0 is used, what
is the total number of spindles required to generate the required I/O per second?
A. Ten 10K drives
B. Four 15K drives
C. One Flash drive
D. Fourteen 7.2K drives
Answer: A

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NO.6 A storage administrator reports they are unable configure SAN Copy connections between two VNX.
The required cabling is in place and zoning is correct, but the SP connections still do not appear in
Unisphere Manager. What could have caused this issue?
A. SAN Copy is not installed on both VNX arrays.
B. SAN Copy is only licensed for local copies.
C. The SP ports are already being used by hosts.
D. Both VNX arrays are not in the same domain.
Answer: D

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NO.7 A customer has two EMC VNX configured to replicate between sites. Each VNX has dual Control
Stations. The primary Control Station at the source site fails at 6 p.m. and reboots. At 8 p.m., the customer
completes DR testing and observes CIFS replication does not failover to the target site VNX. Why does
CIFS replication not failover to the target VNX during the DR test?
A. The control station of the primary VNX should have been failed back.
B. The control station of the second VNX should have been failed over.
C. The control station of the primary VNX should have IP bounding enabled.
D. The control station of the secondary VNX should have IP bounding enabled.
Answer: A

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NO.8 A customer has an Oracle ASM database on an EMC VNX with FAST Suite enabled. They observe
intermittent performance degradation due to momentary data hot spots caused by bursty transaction rates.
What recommendation would you make to help alleviate these hot spots?
A. Enable Fast VP on the ASM LUNs
B. Modify the ASM rebalance power priority
C. Enable Fast Cache on the ASM LUNs
D. Disable ASM storage management
Answer: C

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NO.9 An administrator is attempting to vMotion a VM from one vSphere ESXi 5.0 host to another. The ESXi
servers are connected to three VNX arrays on the fabric. The vMotion fails. What is the most likely
reason?
A. RDMs are attached to the VM with different host LUN numbers on the ESXi servers.
B. There are active SnapView sessions on the VM preventing the vMotion.
C. RDMs are in physical compatibility mode and not eligible for vMotion.
D. There are active MirrorView sessions on the VM preventing the vMotion.
Answer: A

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NO.10 A customer has a Windows-only environment connected to an EMC VNX for File at their main campus
site. The customer plans to install a new EMC VNX at a remote branch office site. The new VNX will be
used to implement a DR solution for their main campus VNX using several deduplicated file systems
shared and available to clients via CIFS.
Which solution do you recommend to the customer?
A. Use VNX Replicator to replicate the VNX VDMs and associated file systems from the main campus site
to the VNX system at the branch office site to provide an asynchronous DR solution.
B. Use VNX Replicator to replicate the VNX VDMs and associated file systems from the main campus site
to the VNX system at the branch office site to provide a synchronous DR solution.
C. Use VNX SAN Copy to replicate the VNX block devices associated with the VNX file systems from the
main campus site to the VNX system at the branch office site to provide a synchronous DR solution.
D. Use VNX MirrorView/A to replicate the VNX block devices associated with the VNX file systems from
the main campus site to the VNX system at the branch office site to provide an asynchronous DR solution.
Answer: A

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NO.11 A client has an EMC VNX configured with four storage ports, four 15-drive DAEs (disk array
enclosures) and a total of forty drives (20 NL-SAS and 20 SAS drives). The client is using RAID 5 (4+1)
RAID groups with a traditional LUN configuration.
What is the recommended SAS LCC port configuration for optimal performance?
A. Distribute drives evenly across all ports
B. Distribute drives on all odd ports
C. Distribute drives on all even ports
D. Distribute drives on a single port
Answer: A

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NO.12 You are planning a CIFS DR solution for two existing EMC VNX. Each VNX has dual Control Stations.
Each VNX is also configured for a RecoverPoint protection solution on other VNX LUNs that are non-file
related. What recommendation would you give the customer concerning the CIFS DR solution?
A. Configure IP aliasing on the Control Stations for both source and destination VNX systems before
configuring VNX Replicator
B. Configure IP aliasing on the Control Stations for both source and destination VNX systems after
configuring VNX Replicator
C. Configure IP aliasing on the source VNX system Control Stations before configuring VNX Replicator,
and then configure IP aliasing on the destination VNX system Control Stations after configuring VNX
Replicator.
D. Configure IP aliasing on the source VNX system Control Stations before configuring VNX Replicator
and use RecoverPoint to provide protection of the source VNX Control Stations to the destination VNX.
Answer: A

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NO.13 A Pool used for FAST VP has the following configuration:
Flash drives: 1,000 GB, with 1,000 GB free
SAS drives: 5,000 GB, with 2,500 GB free
NL-SAS drives: 20,000 GB, with 11,500 GB free
The tiering policy is set to Auto. An additional 600 GB of new data is written to the Pool.
What is the data distribution after the data is written?
A. Flash drives: 960 GB free SAS drives: 2,400 GB free NL-SAS drives: 11,040 GB free
B. Flash drives: 400 GB free SAS drives: 2,500 GB free NL-SAS drives: 11,500 GB free
C. Flash drives: 900 GB free SAS drives: 2,000 GB free NL-SAS drives: 11,500 GB free
D. Flash drives: 970 GB free SAS drives: 2,350 GB free NL-SAS drives: 11,080GB free
Answer: A

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NO.14 A customer has a CIFS DR solution with EMC VNX using a One-to-Many replication topology. The
customer asks you to explain replication behavior under the following conditions:
Production site failover or switchover to a DR site
Replication start and reverse is performed
What would you advise the customer?
A. The original production site remains a One-to-Many replication source for the other remaining DR sites.
B. All remaining replications sessions to the other DR sites are suspended.
C. The original production site goes into cascade mode to remain a replication source for the remaining
DR sites.
D. The DR site becomes the replication source for the remaining DR sites and the original production site
is marked as invalid.
Answer: C

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NO.15 A customer plans to connect ESXi 5.0 hosts to a new EMC VNX array. They want to take advantage of
the hardware-assisted locking feature in VAAI. Which is a feature of hardware-assisted locking?
A. Locking at the block level of a logical unit
B. Locking the LUN instead of the block level
C. Accessing a block from multiple hosts at the same time
D. Automatic enabling of safe data caching
Answer: A

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NO.16 A customer recently upgraded from vSphere v4.x to vSphere v5.0 to benefit from new VMFS-5 features
for their existing DataStore1 ¯ and DataStore2 ¯ datastores on an EMC VNX. A second identically
configured VNX was implemented and the customer created two additional datastores on the new VNX.
After monitoring the environment, the customer notices the VMs on DataStore1 ¯ and DataStore2 ¯
are not using the same sub-block structure as the two new datastores.
What is the reason for this behavior.?
A. The old VMs are on an upgraded VMFS-5 datastore.
B. The old VMs are still running old VMware tools.
C. The new VMFS-5 features need to be licensed and activated.
D. The new VMFS-5 cannot support two VNX storage systems.
Answer: A

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NO.17 A customer requests a performance review of their EMC VNX before FAST Cache is implemented.
You notice a dedicated LUN has a write size of 4 KB, and the disks are performing writes of 8 KB. What is
causing this behavior?
A. Coalescing
B. Pre-fetching
C. Flushing
D. Promotion
Answer: A

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NO.18 A customer has two identically configured Linux hosts (OS version, memory, CPU) attached to the
same network. One host is NFS-attached and the other is FC-attached to an EMC VNX. Both the NFS file
systems and the SAN LUNs are created from four RAID 5 (4+1) RAID groups. LUNs are not shared
between file and block and each host generates the same size I/O.
The customer reports the FC-attached host is able to achieve much greater throughput than the
NFS-attached host.
What is the source of the performance difference between the file and block configurations?
A. FC encapsulation overhead
B. Host Patch levels
C. Ethernet Network
D. NFS version
Answer: C

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NO.19 A customer requires an asynchronous DR solution for an NFS-only client environment. The customer
wants the solution to be simple to implement. It was recommended they create a single NIS domain, and
use several NIS servers to provide centralized authentication to the NFS clients at both the source and
destination sites. The customer asks you whether they should consider using VDMs in this environment.
What do you advise?
A. VDMs would offer no advantages to this environment.
B. VDMs allow VMWare integration of NFS service environments.
C. VDMs eliminate the need for Usermapper in NFS environments.
D. VDMs allow for assignment of specific CPUs to a NFS server.
Answer: A

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NO.20 A customer recently purchased an EMC VNX to be connected to four ESXi 5.0 hosts via FC. Five of the
associated VMs (virtual machines) are running SQL Server 2008 R2. To avoid contention, the customer
wants the VM's database and log drives on separate datastores.
Which ESXi 5.0 feature would satisfy this requirement?
A. Network interface card teaming
B. Virtual Machine Anti-Affinity
C. Raw Device Mappings
D. VMDK Affinity
Answer: B

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