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Exam Code: 3000-2
Exam Name: Avaya (ACSS Small and Medium Enterprise (SME) Communications)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 103 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-30

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NO.1 Your customer has requested that you implement a plan to give their two sites
complete resiliency.
Which two will accomplish this? (Choose two.)
A. IP Office Resiliency License
B. IP Phones with backup call server
C. IP500v2 with redundant processor
D. Preferred Edition
Messaging at both locations
Answer: B,D

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NO.2 Which two licenses are required to support an Interactive Voice Response (IVR) and
Text To Speech
(TTS) enabled auto attendant? (Choose two.)
A. IP Office Essential System license
B. IP Office Preferred System license
C. IP Office Advanced System license
D. VMPro TTS (Generic)
E. Database license
Answer: B,C

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NO.3 Call routing in a multi site SCN solution needs careful planning to prevent which three.?
(Choose three.)
A. VCM resources are not over subscribed.
B. VMPro ports are not over subscribed.
C. Trunk ports are not over subscribed.
D. ACD routes are not compromised.
E. Calls are not tromboned.
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.4 A customer has opened up another location in London that will have four employees
and wants to SCN
this site with the current location in New York City which has an IP500 that has been installed
for over a
year without any software revisions.
Which two solutions do you recommend for the London location? (Choose two.)
A. Install the IP500 with the VCM 32 and the 12 port Ethernet switch on a UPS, ground the
IP500,
upgrade the IP500 to the same version as the IP500 in New York City, install four digital
phones, and
verify the correct software version on the phones.
B. Install the IP500 with VCM 32, add a digital station module on the IP500, Put the IP500
and the DS
module on a UPS, earth ground the IP500 and the digital station module, match the IP500
and DS
module with the version level with New York City and install the four digital phones.
C. Install four digital phones and create a VPN connection between London and New York
City for the
digital phones to connect back to the digital station module in New York City.
D. Install the IP500 with the VCM 32 on a UPS, a 12 port POE switch on a UPS, earth
ground the IP500,
match the IP Office version level with New York City, install four IP Phones, and verify the
correct
software version on the IP phones.
Answer: B,D

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NO.5 In Windows Services, which tab would you use to allow the VoiceMail Pro service to
run as a specific
user?
A. General
B. Advanced
C. Log On
D. Dependencies
E. User
Answer: C

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NO.6 Which three requirements are collected during the Infrastructure Data Gathering
phase? (Choose
three.)
A. Productivity Requirements
B. Physical Layer: Existing Telecom Infrastructure
C. Above Physical Layer: Existing Data Network
D. Line of Business application integration needs
E. Current PBX/Key System Features and Dial Plan
Answer: B,C,E

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NO.7 A customer is requesting space required for an IP500 and expansion modules. IT says
that they have
12U space (2U = 73mm / 2.9") available in their rack. 35 DS phones and 30 analog phones
are required.
The customer also has one analog trunk. In case of power failure, one analog phone has to
ring. The
VMPRO server takes 4U space on the rack.
What is the minimum space required for the IP Office?
A. 2U
B. 6U
C. 8U
D. 12U
Answer: B

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NO.8 A client requests VoiceMail Pro with UMS to be installed. During the installation
process the option for
UMS does not appear.
What is the cause?
A. The UMS service is installed automatically.
B. The UMS licenses have not been loaded.
C. The server platform does not meet the requirements.
D. The Windows account does not have permission.
Answer: C

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NO.9 A customer is running SIP phones that are locked down to G.729a.
What is the bandwidth used for the speech of ten simultaneous calls?
A. 63 Kbps
B. 80 Kbps
C. 560 Kbps
D. 640 Kbps
Answer: B

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NO.10 Which two cards can give the IP500 control unit the full ability to interface to a T1/E1
ISDN trunk
without additional licenses? (Choose two.)
A. IP 500 PRI U
B. Voice Compression Module
C. ISDN U
D. PRI 24/30
E. Legacy Carrier Card
Answer: D,E

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NO.11 A customer has opened up a new location in London that will have four employees.
They want to SCN
this site with the current location in New York City which has an IP500 that has been installed
for over a
year without any software revisions. The employees in London will use the New York City
location for all
outbound and inbound calls and want to be able to dial any extension at either location.
What should you recommend for this customer?
A. Install an IP500 with four digital phones in London and use short codes to dial across the
H.323 IP
trunk to connect back to New York City.
B. Install an IP500 with four IP phones in London and create a VPN connection between
London and New
York City with firewalls at both locations using double network address translations.
C. Install an IP500 with four IP phones in London and use the H.323 IP trunk for a SCN to
connect back to
New York City to dial out of New York City.
D. Install an IP500 with four IP phones in New York City and use the H.323 IP trunk for a
SCN to connect
back to London to dial out of London.
Answer: C

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NO.12 Which two are power options for IP telephones on the IP Office? (Choose two.)
A. Class "B" 24 Volt power supply
B. 1151D1 Individual Power Supply and the 1151D2 Individual Power Supply with Battery
Backup
C. Class "A" 24 volt power supply
D. Power over Ethernet switch conforming to 802.3af standards
Answer: B,D

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NO.13 Which supported hardware is needed to protect an analog extension port that is in a
different building
than the control unit?
A. ITWLinx towerMAX DS/2
B. Analog surge protector
C. ITWLinx towerMAX SCL/8
D. IP Office Barrier Box
Answer: D

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NO.14 The design for an IP Office has two locations. They will need phones, voicemail, and
meet me
conferencing ability. They will have a PRI at the main office and the remote office will also
use it for
inbound and outbound calls. The main site has forty users and one fax machine. The remote
site has
fifteen users and one fax machine.
Which cards and modules are required in the IP Office at the main site to support all digital
phones?
A. IP500 Preferred edition, three Digital Station 8 Card, one Analog Phone 2 Card, Universal
PRI Trunk
Card, one DS30 Module
B. IP500 Essential edition, three Digital Station 8 Card, one Analog Phone 2 Card, Universal
PRI Trunk
Card, one DS30 Module
C. IP500 Essential edition, two Digital Station 8 Card, one Analog Phone 2 Card, VCM32,
Universal PRI
Trunk Card, one DS30 Module
D. IP500 Preferred edition, two Digital Station 8 Card, one Analog Phone 2 Card, VCM32,
Universal PRI
Trunk Card, one DS30 Module
Answer: D

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NO.15 You need to implement the new tourist information center (TIC) in Milan. The
requirement is to have an
Auto Attendant that can supply up to three levels (caller can choose option 1, then 2, and
finally option 3)
for 10 different information groups such as City Guides, "points of view", Hotels with available
room, etc.
An additional requirement is to have the voicemail to email option for all people working at
the TIC of
Milan.
Which IP Office version will meet these requirements for the least cost?
A. IP Office Preferred Edition
B. IP Office Preferred Edition and IP Office Advanced Edition
C. IP Office Essential Edition
D. IP Office Advanced Edition
E. IP Office Basic Edition
Answer: C

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Exam Code: 6202-1
Exam Name: Avaya (Avaya Aura(TM) Contact Center Implementation Exam)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 65 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-30

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NO.1 In an Avaya Aura Contact Center, what does enabling Open do?
A. It permits agents to utilize the Avaya OpenQueue Desktop for agent skills that have
agents logged in
with the correct training and knowledge sets to handle calls
B. It allows third parties including Contact Center MultiMedia (CCMM) to create, read, and
delete
multimedia and voice contacts in Contact Center Manager Server (CCMS)
C. It gives agents and Call Center supervisors the ability to manage multiple simultaneous
contact types
such as voice, outbound voice, email, chat, IM and voicemail
D. It provides extended call queuring functionality for the Avaya Aura Contact Center by
implementing
the same functionality as the Automatic Call Distribution Queue including useful features like
visualization
Answer: B

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NO.2 You are preparing a Windows 2008 Server for Contact Center Manager Server (CCMS)
and Server
Utility installation Which operation on the server can the Server Utility perform?
A. Perform event preferences
B. Perform database restores
C. Administer Contact Center Agent login credentials
D. Modify Real-Time Display interface parameters
Answer: A

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NO.3 You have completed the stand-alone installation of Contact Center Manager
Administration (CCMA)
software on a fully prepared Platform Vendor Independent (PVI) server The CCMA cannot
establish a
connection to the Contact Center Manager Server (CCMS) What is one of the first steps to
troubleshoot
the problem.?
A. Reinstall CCMA
B. Ensure that the correct sys-admin password is being used
C. Change the IP multicast sending address on the CCMS server
D. Ensure that the CCMS and CCMA servers have been added to a domain
Answer: B

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NO.4 After completing the in installation of the Contact Center Manager Server (CCMS), you
want to display
the installation log. What is the path to this log?
A. D:\Avaya\Logs\PV|
B. C:\Logs\CCMS
C. C:\Avaya\Logs\Sysops
D. D:\Log\CMS
Answer: C

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NO.5 You are installing a standalone Contact Center Manager Server (CCMS) The
Application will be
installed on a Windows Server 2008 operating system. As a part of the Windows Server 2008
operating
system preparation the IPv6 option needs to be removed What is one way to disable IPv6
functionality?
A. IPv6 is disabled by default on Windows Server 2008 operating system
B. Perform a NET USE IPV6 DISABLE within a command window
C. Under Control Panel, go to System and Security and remove IPv6 addressing
D. Right chick on the Local Area Connection Adaptor and select Properties, then clear the
IPv6 check box
Answer: D

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NO.6 Which pre-installation preparations must be completed on a Platform Vendor
Independent (PVI) server
before installing Avaya Aura Contact Center server applications?
A. Enable IPV6 . Ensure SNMP is disabled. Enable NetBIOS. The ELAN card must be first in
the binding
order
B. Enable IPV6. Ensure SNMP is enabled. Enable NetBIOS. The Contact Center Subnet
(CLAN) card
must the first in the binding order
C. Disable IPV6. Ensure SNMP is enabled. Disable NetBIOS. The Contact Center Subnet
(CLAN) card
must be first in the binding order
D. Disable IPV6. Ensure SNMP is enabled .Disable NetBIOS .The ELAN card must be first in
the binding
order
Answer: C

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NO.7 A company is planning to implement a stand-alone Contact Center Manager Server
(CCMS) license
with 50 Voice Agents Which license type should the company purchase?
A. Essential
B. Nodal NCC
C. Nodal Enterprise
D. Corporate Enterprise
Answer: A

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NO.8 In a SIP based Avaya Aura Contact Center, the Contact Center Manager Server
(CCMS) supports
secure Transport Layer Security (TLS) communication When implementing Security
Certificate
management for TLS in the CCMS, what is the first step that must be accomplished?
A. Create the Certificate Store in the CCMS
B. Apply the Signed Certificate to the CCMS
C. Create a Certificate Signing Request (CSR) file from the CMS
D. Apply the Certificate Authority (CA) Root Certificate to the CCMS
Answer: D

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NO.9 Which operating system features should be enabled in Windows Server 2008 operating
system before
you install Contact Center Manager Administration (CCMA)?
A. Windows Server Backup for running CCMA Server Backups and Internet Information
Services (IIS)
B. TFTP Client to Backup of the CCMA configuration files to remote TFTP Server and XPS
Viewer to view
reports on the server
C. Storage Manager for SAN s for managing the remote backups and IIS
D. IIS and XPS Viewer to view reports on the server
Answer: A

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NO.10 You are installing Contact Center Manager Administration (CCMA) on a standalone
server. Which
statement regarding passwords associated with CCMA running on a Windows Server 2008
operating
system is true?
A. The iceAdmin user account can be deleted during the CCMA installation
B. The iceAdmin user account password must be established during installation of CCMA
C. If the iceAdmin password is changed, CCMA cannot be logged on to either as webadmin
of any other
user
D. If the default webadmin password is changed, CCMA cannot be logged on to either as
iceAdmin or as
any other user
Answer: B

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Exam Code: 3100
Exam Name: Avaya (Avaya Aura Communication Manager Administration Exam)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 58 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-30

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NO.1 You are adding ten new IP telephones in a small company administered with a G430 Media
Gateway and a S8300D ICC main server. The G430 has the S8300D inserted in the slot V1, and
MM71 in the slot V2, and an MM712 in the slot V3.
Which hardware module will act as Gatekeeper for the telephones?
A. MM710
B. MM712
C. MGP on the media gateway
D. S8300D server using Processor Ethernet (PE)
Answer: D

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NO.2 The Avaya Extension to Cellular feature provides users with the capability to have one
administered telephone that supports communication manager features for both an office
telephone and one outside cellular or wireless telephone, two fields must be set to "Yes" in order to
use this functionality:
Enhanced EC500 and extended Cvg/Fwd Admin.
Which command do you use to verify the field settings?
A. System-parameters features
B. System-parameters customer-options
C. System-parameters wireless
D. System-parameters converge-forwarding
Answer: B

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NO.3 There are two GUI-based access tools available: Avaya site administration (ASA) and system
management interface (SMI).
Which statement correctly differentiates between ASA and SMI?
A. Both SMI and ASA can perform the same administration tasks but ASA is being replaced by SMI.
B. Both SMI and ASA can perform the same administration tasks but SMI is for technicians and ASA
is for customers.
C. SMI provides access to less frequent administration, installation and upgrade functions, while ASA
provides access to day-to-day administration functions.
D. Old hardware and software (Pre - 5.x) is administered using SMI, while current hardware and
software (5.x and later) is administered using ASA.
Answer: C

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NO.4 You want a user's station to be able to dial extension 5605 and 5608 only.
Which station configuration will achieve this?
A. Assign COR 11 to user' station, In COR11
Set COR-to COR calling permission = 'n' for all except COR 10.
Assign COR to 5605 and 5608.
Ensure that these two CORs are not assigned to any other station object.
B. The FRL = 7to user's station. FRL = 7 to station 5606 and 5608.
Set FRL for all other stations to 6 and lesser
C. Assign COR 10 to user's station.
In COR 11, set CPR-to-COR calling permission = 'n' for all except.
Assign COR 11 to 5605 and 5608.
Ensure that these two CORs are not assigned to any other object.
D. The FRL = 5 to user's station, FRL = 7 to station 5606 and 5608.
Set FRL for all other stations to 5 or lesser.
Answer: A

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NO.5 Consider the signaling Group Information shown in the exhibit.
Which SAT command can you use to get the IP address of the Far-end Node of the Signaling group
50?
A. Display board CLAN10
B. List node-name all
C. List ip-address nodes
D. List ip-interface nodes
Answer: B

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NO.6 A remote user Avaya softphone to work from home reports that the client desktop application
will not register. After verifying that the user has configured the softphone application to "point" to
the current IP address of a Communication Manager Gatekeeper using an administered extension,
you ask if the user supplied a password when logging on. The user confirms that the password was
used on each log-on attempt.
You look up the user's information and note that the type field is 4620 (IP telephone) and the
security code field is.
With reference to the scenario described in the exhibit, which action should you take to ensure that
the user can use the IP SoftPhone?
A. Change the IP SoftPhone field to y.
B. Change the Converge Path 1 value to match the value in converge path 2.
C. Change the message Lamp Ext value to match the extension number.
D. Change the name in the name field to match the name as administered in the LDAP directory.
Answer: A

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NO.7 Communication Manager Backups are done through the system management interface (SMI).
Which three statements about the Communication Manager backup function are correct? (Choose
three)
A. The backup function creates two complete files on the internal hardware drive.
B. The backup function can create a file on a network device using protocols: SCP , SFTP , or FTP .
C. The backup function can encrypt the file with a pass phrase.
D. The backup is done dynamically and cannot be scheduled in advance.
E. The full Backup option does not do Save Transaction Command Automatically before creating the
backup file.
Answer: B,C,E

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Exam Name: Avaya (Avaya CallPilot Implementation Exam)
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Total Q&A: 68 Questions and Answers
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NO.1 When installing Avaya CallPilot Reporter, what is a valid installation option?
A. Client PC
B. Avaya CallPilot server
C. Administrator PC
D. Customer provided Web server
Answer: D

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NO.2 A company is planning to install a new Avaya CallPilot RIs. 5.0 system. They need a high
availability
system that will allow a standby server to lake over in case the primary server fails.
Which hardware platform should be delivered on-site?
A. 703t
B. 600r
C. 1006r
D. 1002rp
E. 2250
Answer: C

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NO.3 Which two additional software packages are installed during the Avaya CallPilot Reporter
installation?
A. Adobo Acrobat
B. Crystal Repots
C. Application Builder
D. a Sybase database
Answer: B,D

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NO.4 A technician is installing an Avaya CallPilot with the NTRH40CA MBP96 CAT5 board and two
NTRB18DA Mgate cards.
When cabling the NTRB18DA Mgate cards in a Communication Server 1000S Media Gateway, which
statement describes the cabling configuration that is the most valid?
A. Attach the customersupplied RJ-45cables to thefaceof the Mgate cards and then to the MBP96
card.
B. Attach the customer supplied RJ-45 cables to the backplane of the Media Gateway or
MediaGateway
expansion cabinet and then to the MBP96 card.
C. AttachNTDU0609 cables to the face of the Mgate cards and route them outside the Media
Gateway.
Then couple the customer supplied RJ-45 cables from the NTDU0609 to the MPB96 cards.
D. Attach the NTDU0609 cables to the face of the Mgate cards and take them outside the Media ay
lo a
customer supplied Ethernet hub. Attach RJ-45 cable from the hub to the MPB96cards.
Answer: C

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NO.5 Working as a team, the Project Manager has just finished programming the agents in the PBX,
while technician configured them in Avaya CallPilot. When Avaya CallPilot hoots into service, all
channels come up except for one. Prior to the replacement of hardware, it is decided to look into
the Event log.
Which event below gives a possible clue us to what the problem is?
A. DialogicEventManagement system initialization failed.
B. IMAreceived a disk full event.
C. Event from Blue Call Router: All Port Busy Indication.
D. TN/DN mismatch.
Answer: D

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NO.6 A technician is preparing for an Avaya CallPilot installation and is reviewing site survey
information.
The customer wants to implement the desktop messaging feature, but on the survey there is no
mention
of desktop messaging seats.
Where is it confirmed that desktop messaging seats were ordered?
A. on the shipped packing list
B. on the keycodecertificate
C. in the AvayaCallPilotsystem afterimplementation
D. in theconfigurationwizardduring implementation
Answer: B

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NO.7 A technician has completed the configuration and programming for an implementation of a
new Avaya CallPilot system.
When the Avaya CallPilot is rebooted, over which local Area Network (LAN) connection does the
Communication Server 1000 communicate with the Avaya CallPilot voicemail system.?
A. DSO
B. CLAN
C. ELAN
D. SLAN
E. TLAN
Answer: C

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NO.8 The Avaya CallPilot 600r server has one MPM96 card. The PBX it is connecting to will require
MGate cards.
How many MGate cards are needed to support 80 voice channels?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Answer: C

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NO.9 A technician is installing a 600r, and notices that the server boots to the Windows screen then
starts
booting again. It is stuck in a boot.
What is the first step that should be taken?
A. Re-image the server.
B. Openacase requesting a replacement server.
C. Replace the hard drive.
D. Verify theSCSIterminator or tape drive is properly connected to the server.
Answer: B

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NO.10 A technician is installing an Avaya CallPilot system on a customer site. After running the Setup
Wizard and the Configuration Wizard 'he technician has verified the server operating system
settings are correct for the site and has rebooted the server to place the system into operation.
After the reboot is complete and the technician has logged hack on to the server, which process
verifies
that the Avaya CallPilot server is able to receive incoming calls?
A. Print the ControlDNs.
B. Print the Virtual Agents.
C. Ping theELAN connection.
D. Dial the VoiceMessagingDNasdefined in the Configuration Wizard.
Answer: D

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Exam Code: RDCR08201
Exam Name: Business-Objects (Business Objects Certified Professional - Crystal Reports 2008 - Level One)
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Total Q&A: 170 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-30

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NO.1 What are three Crystal Reports 2008 viewer features? (Choose three.)
A.Docked/Stationary Toolbar
B.Export to Microsoft PowerPoint
C.Java DHTML Viewer Exporting
D.Independent Group Tree Scrolling
Answer:A C D

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NO.2 Which two methods can you use to insert field objects into a Crystal report? (Choose two.)
A.Right-click the area where you want the field object to appear, then select Insert Field Object from the
Context menu.
B.Click the field name, drag it to the desired position and release the mouse button to insert.
C.Open the Section Expert and click the Insert button.
D.Click the field name and click the Insert to Report icon at the top of the Field Explorer. Drag the field to
the desired position and left-click to insert.
Answer:B D

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NO.3 You design a Crystal summary report that is grouped by Region then by Customer Name. The Details
section is hidden. The report includes a bar chart that displays total orders by Customer Name for each
Region group. Which procedure will display the chart beside the sections that show Customer Name and
Total Sales?
A.Place the chart in the Group Header #1 section and format the section to Underlay Following Sections.
B.Place the chart in the Details section and format the section to suppress if duplicated.
C.Place the chart in the Group Footer #2 section and format the section to Underlay Following Sections.
D.Place the chart in the Group Footer #2 section and format the section to suppress if duplicated.
Answer:A

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NO.4 You want to use the Workbench feature to manage multiple reports and publish them to
BusinessObjects Enterprise as object packages. Your manager is concerned that any Crystal user could
access and make changes to the reports located on the Workbench. How can you address your
manager's concerns?
A.Encrypt object packages.
B.Password protect object packages.
C.Assign appropriate permissions to object packages that are published to BusinessObjects Enterprise.
D.Track changes on object packages using the Dependency Checker.
Answer:C

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NO.5 You have created a report with a parameter but the parameter value is not always required. Which
method should you use?
A.Set Editable to True
B.Set Null Values to True
C.Set Custom Values to True
D.Set Optional Prompt to True
Answer:D

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NO.6 You make changes to the record selection criteria in a Crystal report. In which two circumstances
should you choose the Refresh Data option rather than the Use Saved Data option? (Choose two.)
A.When up-to-the-minute, current information must be displayed on the report.
B.When adding one or more selection criteria.
C.When it is important to avoid time delays caused by network traffic during database server connects.
D.When removing one or more existing selection criteria.
Answer:A D

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NO.7 You want to see a list of formulas containing references to a specific field. Which method can you use?
A.Browse Field
B.Repository Explorer
C.Formula Field Search
D.Global Formula Search
Answer:D

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NO.8 You need a report that shows all customers and allows the report reader to view either a report listing all
days in the month to date or to view only the customers with daily sales greater than $5000. You decide to
use report alerts to accomplish this. Which formula properly sets the alert condition?
A.Sum ({Orders.Order Amount}, {Orders.Order Date}, "daily") > 5000
B.Sum ({Orders.Order Date}, {Orders.Order Amount}, "daily") > 5000}
C.IF Sum ({Orders.Order Amount}, {Orders.Order Date}, "daily") > 5000 THEN crCondition = "Enabled"
D.IF Sum ({Orders.Order Amount}, {Orders.Order Date}, "daily") > 5000 THEN AlertMessage = "Enabled"
Answer:A

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NO.9 You want to create a formula using the Formula Workshop. You begin by right-clicking Formula Fields
in the Field Explorer and then click the New button. What happens after you click the New button?
A.You must select the type of formula and click OK.
B.The Formula Workshop opens with the Formula Editor inactive.
C.You must enter a formula name and click OK.
D.The Formula Workshop opens with the Formula Editor active.
Answer:C

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NO.10 You must create a static array in a Crystal report to be used for numeric calculations in other formulas.
How can you do this?
A.Global NumberVar Array newArray := Array (1, 2, 3, 4, 5);
B.Global NumberVar Array newArray := MakeArray (1, 2, 3, 4, 5);
C.Global NumberVar Array newArray := CreateArray (1, 2, 3, 4, 5);
D.Global NumberVar Array newArray := DefineArray (1, 2, 3, 4, 5);
Answer:B

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NO.11 You copy a report from BusinessObjects Enterprise and modify the report. Which two methods can you
use to save changes back to BusinessObjects Enterprise? (Choose two.)
A.Save the report using the Report Explorer.
B.From the Main menu, select Save and choose Enterprise.
C.From the Main menu, select Save and choose Web Folders.
D.Save the report using the Repository Explorer.
Answer:B D

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NO.12 What two configuration options are valid for long Lists of Values (LOV) in Crystal Reports 2008?
(Choose two.)
A.UI Batch Size
B.Database Timeout
C.Maximum LOV Size
D.Maximum Rowset Records
Answer:A C

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NO.13 How must you register multiple XML export formats in Crystal Reports 2008?
A.Configure XML export formats using the Define XML dialog.
B.Configure XML export formats using the Manage XML dialog.
C.Add XML export formats using the Manage XML Exporting Formats dialog.
D.Add XML export formats using the Define XML Exporting Formats dialog.
Answer:C

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NO.14 Which three lines of code will generate an error? (Choose three.)
A.Local Number x := 1;
B.Local NumberVal x := 1;
C.Local NumberVar x := 1;
D.Local NumberValue x := 1;
Answer:A B D

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NO.15 Which three options are provided for web pagination? (Choose three.)
A.Navigation controls
B.Page breaking controls
C.Conditional Page Margin controls
D.Portrait versus Landscape controls
Answer:B C D

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NO.16 Which two methods can you use to change the appearance of an object that you add to a Crystal report?
(Choose two.)
A.Hold down CTRL + Spacebar and click on the object.
B.Right-click the object and use the Format Editor.
C.Select the object and use the Formatting toolbar.
D.Drag-and-drop the object to the Formatting toolbar.
Answer:B C

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NO.17 You create a new Crystal report and want to add a Top N sort, but the Group Sort Expert is inactive.
How can you activate the Group Sort Expert?
A.Insert a group name field.
B.Insert a summary field.
C.Insert a running total field.
D.Insert a formula field.
Answer:B

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NO.18 Which method can you use to insert field objects into a Crystal report?
A.Select the Field option from the Insert menu.
B.Right-click the area where you want the field object to appear, then select Insert Field Object from the
Context menu.
C.Click the field name, drag it to the desired position and release the mouse button to insert.
D.Click the Field button on the Formatting toolbar.
Answer:C

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NO.19 In Crystal Reports you select multiple report objects at the same time. Which two menu options become
available when you right-click one of the selected objects? (Choose two.)
A.Move
B.Insert
C.Delete
D.Copy
E.Cut
Answer:D E

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NO.20 When should you use parameters?
A.When creating conditional Top N reports.
B.When identifying the data source location.
C.When identifying trends in data.
D.When creating dynamic groups.
Answer:D

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NO.21 You are designing a Crystal report that summarizes customer orders by country, then by state, then by
city and by customer ID. You want the report to print each country on a new page. The first page should
display a bar chart showing Total Sales by Country group in the Report Header and as much of the first
country as can be displayed. The last page should show the summary for the last country and the grand
total for the entire report. Which step can you perform in the Section Expert to achieve the design goal?
A.Set New Page After on for Group Footer #1
B.Conditionally format the New Page After property for Group Footer #1 using the formula "not
onlastrecord"
C.Format the New Page After property for Group Header #1 using the formula "not onlastrecord"
D.Set New Page After on for the Report Header section
Answer:B

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NO.22 You are creating a Crystal report to show just the Top N countries in an international sales report based
on total sales for the previous quarter. The value of N is dynamic. Which method must you use to achieve
the required result?
A.Using the Group Select Expert, create a parameter to set the value of N. Add a conditional formula to
view just the Top N countries.
B.After creating a parameter to set the value of N, reference that parameter within the Group Sort Expert.
Refresh the report setting the value of N in the parameter to show just the Top N countries.
C.Using the Group Sort Expert, create a parameter to set the value of N. Refresh the report setting the
value of N in the parameter to show just the Top N countries.
D.After creating a parameter to set the value of N, refresh the report to view just those countries with a
grand total that is greater than N.
Answer:B

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NO.23 Which two reasons explain why the Group Sort Expert is disabled when you attempt to create a Top N
report? (Choose two.)
A.You are in Design view.
B.The data was not refreshed.
C.You are in a Drill Down view.
D.The report is missing a summary value.
Answer:C D

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NO.24 Which two statements describe how optional prompts behave in Crystal Reports 2008? (Choose two.)
A.If no value is entered in the prompt, all values are returned.
B.If no value is entered in the prompt, no values are returned.
C.If the parent prompt is optional, the child prompt must be optional.
D.If the child prompt is optional, the parent prompt must be optional.
Answer:A C

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NO.25 Which two formulas can you use to determine whether the content of a string is a number? (Choose
two.)
A.IsNumber({Orders.Customer ID})
B.NumberText({Orders.Customer ID})
C.IsNumeric({Orders.Customer ID})
D.NumericText({Orders.Customer ID})
Answer:C D

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NO.26 Which special field can you use to display the date a report was last changed?
A.Modification Date
B.Modification LastDate
C.Modification LastUpdate
D.Modification Time
Answer:A

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NO.27 What is the reason you cannot insert a Group layout chart in the Page Header section?
A.You do not have access to the database.
B.The Page Header section is suppressed.
C.A Group layout chart cannot be placed in the Page Header section.
D.You have not saved the report with data.
Answer:C

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NO.28 Which formula uses the correct syntax to assign a variable a value in Crystal syntax?
A.Numbervar x; x = 5;
B.Dim x as Number x = 5
C.Dim x as Number x := 5
D.Numbervar x; x := 5;
Answer:D

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NO.29 After you select a BusinessObjects Universe to use as the data source for a Crystal report, you create
a query using the BusinessObjects Query Panel. What must you do to access the underlying data source?
A.Create a local cache of the data source.
B.Create a connection to the data source.
C.Create a local ODBC resource for the data source.
D.Log in to BusinessObjects Enterprise.
Answer:D

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NO.30 Which three If-Then-Else control structure formulas in Crystal syntax will generate an error? (Choose
three.)
A.If {Orders.Order Amount} < 100 Then "Under $100" Else Is {Orders.Order Amount} in 100 to 200 Then
"Between $100 and $200"
B.If {Orders.order Amount} < 1000 Then "Low" Else "High"
C.If {Orders.Order Amount} < 100 Then formula = "Under $100" ElseIf {Orders.Order Amount} in 100 to
200 Then formula = "Between $100 and $200" EndIf
D.If {Orders.Order Amount} < 200 Then Under $200 Else If {Orders.Order Amount} in 200 to 300 Then
Between $200 and $300
Answer:A C D

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Exam Code: DMDI301
Exam Name: Business-Objects (BUSINESS OBJECTS Data Integrator XI – Level Two)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 33 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-30

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NO.1 You are working in a multi-user central repository based environment. You select "Rename owner" on
an object which is not checked out.
The object has one or more dependent objects in the local repository. What is the outcome?
A. Data integrator displays a second window listing the dependent objects. when you click "continue" the
object owner is renamed and all of the dependent objects are modified.
B. Data Integrator renames the indiviclual object owner.
C. Data Integrator displays the "This object is checked out from central repository "X". Please select Tools
Central Repository. to activate that repository before renaming.Message.
D. Data Integrator renames the owner of all 0bjects within the selected data store.
Answer: A

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NO.2 You create a real-time job that processes data from an external application. Which two mechanisms
enable the external application to send/receive messages to the real-time job? (Choose two).
A. Adapter instance
B. File on shared server
C. E-mail
D. Web service call
Answer: A,D

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NO.3 You create a data flow that contains an XML file as the output. The XML file structure contains an
element that is used to group other element.
This element occurs once in the output XML file. Which method can you use to ensure that this element is
populated correctly?
A. Enter the value"1" in the single element schema mapping.
B. Leave the form clause of the single element schema empty.
C. Place the source table that contains your source rows into the form clause of the single element
schema.
D. Use a row_Generation transform and select one row then map the transform into the from clause of the
single element schema.
Answer: D

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NO.4 Your data flow loads the contents of "order_details "and" order_headers "into one XML file that contains
a node <HEADER> and a child mode <DETAIL>.
How should you populate the structure in your Query.?
A. In the HEADER schema use the order headers for from and leave where empty in the detail schema
use the order details for From and Where clause put order_header_id =order_details order_id.
B. In the HEADER schema use the order_headers for from and put order_header.order_id = order
details.order_id in where clause. In the detail schema use the order_details for from andleave where
empty.
C. In the header schema use the order_header for from and leave where empty in the detail schema use
the order_header for from and put order_header order_id = order_details order_id in where clause.
D. In the header schema use the order_headers for from, and in where clause put order_header order_id
= order details order_id in the detail schema use the order_header, order_details for from and leave
where empty.
Answer: A

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NO.5 Data integrator conations "Execute only once" logic on which two objects ?(Choose two)
A. Conditionals
B. Data flows
C. Scripts
D. Work flows
Answer: B,D

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Exam Code: 050-V37
Exam Name: RSA (CSE RSA enVision Essentials (new update))
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 97 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-30

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NO.1 What are three steps that are part of the device interpretation process using UDS? (Check the three
best answers.)
A.Configure devices to send log data to RSA enVision
B.Device identification (i.e. vendor, device name, class, sub-class, etc.)
C.Identification of device collection method
D.Message definition
E.List of known vulnerabilities
F.Data parsing
Answer:B D F

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NO.2 In the RSA enVision UDS process, what is the purpose of performing Data Reduction steps? (Check the
one best answer.)
A.Improve speed and efficiency of data processing
B.Compress unsupported device data prior to storage
C.Apply ISO-approved abbreviations to message text strings
D.Decrease the rate that unsupported device data is collected
Answer:A

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NO.3 Which RSA enVision module is used to configure the enVision system as well as to monitor its health
and performance? (Check the one best answer.)
A.Overview module
B.Alerts Module
C.Analysis Module
D.Reports Module
Answer:A

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NO.4 After creating a customized Report Menu system, which RSA enVision service(s) need to be re-started?
A.Only the NIC Webserver Service
B.The NIC Webserver and NIC Server Services
C.The NIC Webserver, NIC Server and NIC Locator Services
D.The NIC Webserver, NIC Server, NIC Locator, and NIC Packager Services
Answer:A

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NO.5 In RSA enVision UDS development, Value Maps, Regular Expressions, and Functions are types of
which of the following? (Check the one best answer.)
A.Data Reduction
B.XML Parsing Rules
C.Conditional Variables
D.Summary Data Buckets
Answer:C

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NO.6 When would you expect a difference between the log information captured by RSA enVision and the
log information generated by a device? (Check the one best answer.)
A.When the source IP address of the device is unknown to enVision.
B.When the device is configured to send only certain events to syslog.
C.When "Collect All Logs" is left unchecked in the Manage Devices screen.
D.When the device is a known device and enVision recognizes the events to be non-critical.
Answer:B

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NO.7 Why would the checkbox of a device type be grayed out On the Manage Device Types screen? (Check
the one best answer.)
A.It's not licensed
B.Device is unknown but data can be collected
C.Device is known but not compatible with enVision
D.Device is associated with a monitored device within the NIC domain
Answer:D

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NO.8 What happens if an event source device type is not immediately recognized by RSA enVision? (Check
the one best answer.)
A.It will be defined as "unknown" and for a limited time enVision will collect event data it generates
B.Data from that device will be discarded until the device type can be defined
C.An alert is generated by default to call an administrator's attention to the device
D.The UDS Service will create a parsing XML file for the device and place data in the NIC Parse Cache
Answer:A

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NO.9 The administrator can use the RSA enVision's user authentication feature to complete what tasks?
(Check two answers.)
A.Use an existing Microsoft Active Directory authentication server
B.Associate administrative users with an authentication server
C.Require enVision users to change passwords on a periodic basis
D.Enforce a pre-defined set of 'prohibited passwords' based on a dictionary file
E.Utilize existing domain authenticated user accounts as the basis for enVision user accounts
Answer:A E

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NO.10 If a customer has a specific syslog that they would like to use as part of a demonstration, you can load it
into enVision for reporting and querying using which of the following? (Check the one best answer.)
A.The lsdata utility to import the syslog file
B.Copying the syslog file into the IPDB data directory
C.Using the Data Injector utility to collect data from the syslog file
D.Using the Custom Reports ?View External Data function of the administrative GUI
Answer:C

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NO.11 What does RSA enVision do when it is set to auto-discover new devices? (Check the one best answer.)
A.Adds new supported devices automatically to the list of monitored devices in the Manage Monitored
Devices screen
B.Temporarily holds in the "New Device" cache and begins to collect data after it is approved by an
administrator
C.RSA enVision alerts members of the "administrators" group to add a new device to the list of monitored
devices
D.RSA enVision automatically exports device attributes to an XML file for an administrator to review
Answer:A

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NO.12 How many Remote Collectors (RC) can each Database Server (D-SRV) support? (Check the one best
answer.)
A.Eight (8)
B.Ten (10)
C.Sixteen (16)
D.Thirty two (32)
Answer:C

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NO.13 When creating a new enVision user account, which User Group is the account added to by default?
(Check the one best answer.)
A.Report-users
B.Administrators
C.Temporary-users
D.All-applications-users
Answer:D

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NO.14 True or false. If a conflict exists with the default enVision collection port after appliance installation, the
Collector Service can be modified to configure event collection on a different port.
A.True
B.false
Answer:A

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NO.15 When setting up a Check Point firewall device, which of the following is a good practice that should be
completed first? (Check the one best answer.)
A.Stop and restart the Check Point Firewall Service
B.Stop and restart the enVision NIC Collector Service
C.Verify that the Check Point Log Viewer is receiving events
D.Set an 8-character key to establish an authenticated connection
Answer:C

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NO.16 The UDS development process involves which of the following tasks? (Check two answers.)
A.Verifying XML syntax and parsing
B.Using XML to convert device logs to IPDB format
C.Mapping a device name to an existing enVision device
D.Creating an XML file to define header and message information
Answer:A D

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NO.17 What two tasks does UDS complete when the command "uds reate" is executed to create a device?
(Check the two best answers.)
A.Creates the files .ini, client.txt, vendor.txt and msg.xml
B.Immediately starts collecting data from the new device
C.Identifies all associated devices that have been configured
D.Create all directory structures required for the device
E.Lists all devices to verify that the device does not already exist
Answer:A D

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NO.18 When initially setting up a multiple appliance site, only the D-SRV unit is connected to a LAN ?all of the
other units in the site then connect directly to the D-SRV.
A.True
B.False
Answer:B

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NO.19 When planning an RSA enVision installation, which statements below about the Site Name are
important considerations? (Check two answers.)
A.The Site Name must match an enVision domain name
B.The Site Name must be unique within an enVision domain and cannot be the same as the customer's
NetBIOS domain name
C.The Site Name must not contain any numeric or punctuation characters
D.The Site Name must have the same suffix as the Windows domain in which it resides
E.The Site Name must not match the name of any existing Windows domain in the network
Answer:B E

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NO.20 When opening a connection in Event Explorer, you can define which of the following features? (Check
the three correct answers.)
A.Devices
B.Event categories
C.Log messages
D.Time frame
E.Local collector
Answer:A B D

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Exam Code: 050-ENVCSE01
Exam Name: RSA (CSE RSA enVision Essentials)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 97 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-30

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